Image summary: A line-art illustration featuring a human head profile containing the Greek letter psi, which is stylized with a fountain pen nib at its base. This symbol combines the traditional representation of psychology with writing, suggesting the study or documentation of the human mind.

Prospero B. Genosas 3 et al.

Audio by Paper2Audio.

for incoming first-year students

Foreword

Bs Psychology Screening Reviewer

The field of psychology is built upon continuous discovery. Through rigorous research, experiments, and scientific inquiry, we seek to understand the profound complexities of human behavior, emotion, and cognition. Because human functioning is so intricate, the discipline relies heavily on evidence-based approaches. Consequently, the most foundational skill for an aspiring psychology student is the ability to efficiently read, comprehend, and synthesize a wide range of scholarly work while continuously updating prior knowledge to accommodate new findings.

This dynamic cycle demands a lifelong commitment to learning. To support you on this journey, our program has designed this screening reviewer. Think of it as your guide and your ticket into the B.S Psychology program. The accompanying 100-item screening test is drawn exclusively from the concepts and terminology presented within these pages.

The editors would like to recognize the exceptional scholarly contributions of the authors of the reference books listed below. This reviewer reflects their insights, and the content relies heavily on the clear definitions and comprehensive explanations established in their work.

Table summary: The Table of Contents outlines an academic psychology resource, beginning with introductory sections on pages 1 and 2. The document is organized into six core subject areas, each spanning roughly 10 to 14 pages and following a consistent structure: Theories of Personality starting on page 4, Developmental Psychology on page 11, Psychological Assessment and Testing on page 26, Industrial/Organizational Psychology on page 40, and Abnormal Psychology on page 54. Each of these sections includes a main reference, course description, key terms, additional references, and a practice test. The document concludes with information about the BS Psychology Program on page 70 and a final declaration on page 79.

Part 1 Utilization Guidelines

Time management is key to successfully absorbing vast amounts of information in a short period. To maximize the utility of this screening reviewer, students can implement the following structured, highly effective study process:

1. Establish a Dedicated Study Space. Find a quiet, well-lit area free of distractions such as social media or television. Keeping your study space organized helps prime your brain for deep focus.

2. Set Specific, Realistic Goals for Each Session. Instead of aiming to study the whole reviewer, break it down into manageable chunks. Commit to mastering a specific chapter, topic, or set of pages during each timed session. You may utilize the sample calendar below:

Table summary: A structured study schedule for the BS Psychology Screening Test, organized across four weeks. The plan alternates between reading content for seven specific parts of the syllabus and completing corresponding practice tests, which range from 40 to 50 items each. Key milestones include registering online on Thursday of the first week and downloading the reviewer on Friday. The schedule emphasizes iterative learning, with frequent recall sessions where students re-answer previous practice tests alongside new material. The final day is dedicated to a comprehensive review of all seven parts and the retention test.

8. Take Strategic, Handwritten Summaries. Write down key terms with a definition in your own words. The physical act of writing enhances cognitive processing and gives you a condensed cheat sheet for rapid review later.

9. Take Simulated Practice Quizzes. Simulate the actual screening environment by taking practice tests under timed conditions to build exam stamina, reduce test anxiety, and highlight exactly which topics need further review.

10. Prioritize Rest and Brain Recovery. Sleep is critical for memory consolidation. Ensure you get adequate rest before the exam, as a sleep-deprived brain cannot effectively retain or retrieve complex information.

Part 2 Theories of Personality

Ryckman, R.. Theories of Personality (9th ed.). Thomson Wadsworth.

Feist, J., & Feist, G.. Theories of Personality. 7th Edition, McGraw-Hill Education

B. Course Description

This course offers a comprehensive exploration into one of the most fascinating questions in psychology: What makes us who we are? Personality is not merely a collection of traits, but a complex system of patterns, how we think, feel, and behave, that distinguishes one human being from another. Throughout this term, we will navigate the diverse landscape of psychological thought, from the deep-seated drives of the unconscious to the heights of human potential.

C. Key Terms, Definition, & Personality Example

Table 1 summary: Key terms and definitions used in personality research, illustrated with practical examples. The table defines foundational research concepts including a priori predictions, which are made before data collection; applied value, which measures a theory's real-world utility like Carl Rogers' Person-Centered Theory; and case studies, such as Freud's analysis of Little Hans. It also covers comprehensiveness, exemplified by the Big Five Trait Theory's broad explanatory power; conceptual definitions, which ensure abstract traits like neuroticism are measurable; and experimental components like the control group, which provides a baseline for testing interventions. Finally, it explains statistical tools including the correlation coefficient, which quantifies relationships between variables from -1.00 to +1.00, and the correlational method, used to identify links between naturally occurring events like self-efficacy and academic performance.

Table summary: Key psychological research terms and their applications in personality studies. The list defines 11 concepts ranging from biological factors like cortisol, which is a stress hormone, to methodological components such as independent and dependent variables, which are manipulated and measured respectively to establish cause-and-effect relationships in the experimental method. It also covers scientific standards for evaluating theories, including empirical validity, which measures how well data confirms hypotheses, and heuristic value, which measures a theory's ability to stimulate new research. Additionally, it defines deductive theories as top-down approaches, empirical evidence as objective data, the experimental group as those receiving treatment, debriefing as the post-study ethical process, and hypotheses as testable predictions.

Table summary: Key concepts in personality psychology research and theory, organized as a reference list of terms and their definitions. It covers foundational research methods like inductive theories, longitudinal studies, and operational definitions, alongside ethical requirements such as informed consent. Statistical techniques are represented by multiple correlation and partial correlation, which isolate specific variable relationships. Theoretical standards include parsimony, which prioritizes simplicity in explanations, and the law of effect, which describes how rewards and punishments shape behavior. The list also defines laws as highly reliable scientific associations and distinguishes them from post hoc explanations, which lack verifiable evidence. Finally, it provides a formal definition of personality as the unique, enduring pattern of characteristics that distinguishes an individual.

Table summary: Key terminology used in personality theory and research, organized as a reference list of ten concepts. Each entry defines a term and provides a specific personality-related application. The list includes foundational components like postulates, which are core assumptions, and propositions, which are broad theoretical statements. It covers evaluative standards for theories, specifically precision, which measures clarity, and testability, which assesses whether concepts can be measured. It also defines research methods and metrics, such as self-reports for gathering participant data, replication for ensuring reliability, and statistical significance for calculating the probability of random chance. Finally, it explains complex abstract ideas like psychological constructs, specific mechanisms like self-affirmation theory, and relational statements that connect two or more concepts.

A comprehensive system of interrelated concepts and statements built by scientists to organize, explain, and predict a specific set of real-world phenomena.

Personality Example: Albert Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory is a full theory built to explain how environment, behavior, and thoughts interact to create an individual's personality.

D. Additional References:

•Cervone, D.. Personality: Theory and research. John Wiley & Sons.

•Feist, G. J.. Psychology: Perspective and connections (5th ed.). McGraw-Hill Education.

•Nairne, S. J.. Psychology (7th ed.). Sage Publications.

•Powell, R. A.. Introduction to learning and behavior (6th ed.). Cengage Learning.

•Schacter, D. L.. Psychology (6th ed.). Worth Publishers.

•Shiraev, E.. Personality: Theories and application (2nd ed.). Sage Publications.

E. Practice Test

1. Which term describes specific predictions about the outcome of an investigation or study that are made before any data or evidence is collected? A. Post hoc explanation B. A priori predictions C. Postulates D. Implicit assumptions

2. When a personality theory can be used effectively to provide practical, real-world solutions to human problems, it is said to have high: A. Heuristic value B. Parsimony C. Applied value D. Conceptual precision

3. Sigmund Freud heavily built his personality theory on the intensive, long-term study of single individuals. What is this research technique called? A. Correlational method B. Longitudinal study C. Case study D. Experimental design

4. A scientific personality theory is judged as more adequate and useful if it satisfies the criterion of comprehensiveness, which means it can: A. Be explained in under three simple steps B. Generate immediate financial funding for research labs C. Prove cause-and-effect relationships with 100% certainty D. Encompass and account for a wide range and variety of phenomena

5. To ensure that accurate measurements can be devised, a theorist must precisely define the abstract concepts within a hypothesis. This process creates: A. Operational definitions B. Post hoc explanations C. Conceptual definitions D. Relational statements

6. In an experiment testing whether mindfulness training alters Trait Anxiety, one group sits in a quiet room for 20 minutes without receiving any instructions. This baseline group is the: A. Experimental group B. Control group C. Pilot group D. Co-varying group

7. A numerical index ranging from -1.00 to +1.00 that measures the strength and direction of an association between two variables is called a: A. Statistical significance score B. Standard deviation C. Multiple regression D. Correlation coefficient

8. If a psychologist uses a general statistical procedure to find out if there is a natural relationship or link between a person's level of self-efficacy and their academic grade point average, they are using the: A. Experimental method B. Correlational method C. Case study method D. Deductive method

9. Which biological hormone is generated by the adrenal cortex and released into the bloodstream as a direct indicator of physical or psychological stress? A. Dopamine B. Cortisol C. Melatonin D. Serotonin

10. What ethical practice requires a researcher to inform study participants of the true nature, hidden deceptions, and ultimate purpose of an experiment immediately after it is completed? A. Informed consent C. Self-affirmation B. Debriefing D. Replication

11. What type of top-down theory begins with general, abstract propositions from which specific hypotheses are derived and subsequently tested through data collection? A. Inductive theories B. Parsimonious theories C. Deductive theories D. Post hoc theories

12. When examining social anxiety in a crowded room, an experimenter measures a participant's fluctuating heart rate. In this experimental setup, the heart rate is the: A. Independent variable B. Dependent variable C. Confounding variable D. Control variable

13. Scores collected from 500 completed questionnaires constitute objective, real-world observations made by investigators. This raw data is known as: A. Empirical evidence B. Theoretical postulates C. Abstract propositions D. Concept definitions

14. When a personality theory's hypotheses are tested by data collection and repeatedly confirmed as accurate in the real world, the theory satisfies the criterion of: A. Heuristic value B. Parsimony C. Empirical validity D. Comprehensiveness

15. In an experiment testing if caffeine increases extraverted behaviors, the participants who are intentionally given two cups of caffeinated coffee belong to the: A. Control group B. Operational group C. Placebo group D. Experimental group

16. If a researcher wants to explicitly discover a strict cause-and-effect relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable, which scientific design must they use? A. Case study method B. Correlational method C. Longitudinal method D. Experimental method

17. Sigmund Freud's theory is highly praised for its ability to challenge scientists, spark new ideas, and generate decades of further research. This means the theory has high: A. Parsimony C. Precision B. Heuristic value D. Empirical validity

18. "People who possess an internal locus of control will experience fewer symptoms of depression following job loss than those with an external locus of control." This tentative, testable statement about how events are related is called a: A. Postulate B. Hypothesis C. Philosophy D. Law

19. The specific factors, treatments, or conditions that an experimenter actively and intentionally manipulates to observe their direct effects on behavior are called: A. Dependent variables B. Confounding variables C. Independent variables D. Operational constructs

20. B.F. Skinner developed a bottom-up theory of behavior by observing thousands of individual animal trials and gradually summarizing those factual observations into general principles. This is an example of a(n): A. Deductive theory B. Post hoc theory C. Inductive theory D. Speculative theory

21. What is the ethical practice of giving potential study participants an honest overview of the nature of an experiment and obtaining their written agreement before they participate? A. Debriefing B. Informed consent C. Self-reports D. Public disclosure

22. Which behavioral principle states that a behavior becomes more likely when followed by a reward or the removal of a negative stimulus, and less likely when followed by a punisher? A. Law of effect B. Self-affirmation theory C. Postulate of learning D. Rule of replication

23. A systematic and highly reliable association between variables that has been repeatedly confirmed across many scientific tests is known as a: A. Proposition B. Hypothesis C. Construct D. Law

24. A researcher measures the trait of impulsivity in the exact same group of individuals at age 5, age 15, and age 25 to see how the behavior changes over time. This research design is a: A. Case study B. Longitudinal study C. Cross-sectional study D. Partial correlation study

25. Which advanced statistical technique allows a psychologist to simultaneously determine the relationship between one single outcome variable and a combined pool of two or more predictor variables? A. Partial correlation C. Simple correlation coefficient B. Multiple correlation D. Factor analysis

26. When a researcher turns an abstract concept like aggression into a concrete and measurable one, they are creating a: A. Conceptual definition B. Operational definition C. Theoretical postulate D. Relational statement

27. The scientific standard dictating that an adequate theory should be as economical as possible, using the fewest concepts and assumptions necessary to explain a phenomenon, is called: A. Precision B. Testability C. Parsimony D. Comprehensiveness

28. If a new motivation theory is praised by scientists for being incredibly simple, elegant, efficient, and clean while explaining a wide range of human choices, the theory is described as: A. Inductive B. Post hoc C. Parsimonious D. Heuristic

29. Which statistical technique allows an investigator to assess the true relationship between two events by mathematically eliminating or removing the distorting influence of a third variable? A. Multiple correlation B. Simple correlation C. Partial correlation D. Bivariate regression

30. What term do psychologists use to describe an individual's unique, enduring pattern of psychological characteristics, biological tendencies, and social learning experiences? A. Construct B. Personality C. Philosophy D. Hypothesis

31. Providing an unverified explanation for a phenomenon after it has already occurred, without providing any supporting empirical evidence, is called a(n): A. A priori prediction B. Post hoc explanation C. Theoretical proposition D. Operational definition

32. The fundamental, core assumptions of a theory that are taken as self-evidently true in order to guide the direction of research are called: A. Hypotheses B. Dependent variables C. Postulates D. Conceptual definitions

33. Unproven underlying beliefs or presuppositions about human nature that a theorist holds, which fundamentally shape the entire direction and focus of their theory, are called: A. Hypotheses C. Correlations D. Assumptions

34. Existential personality theories are deeply rooted in a non-empirical, conceptual framework concerning human nature, ethics, and values. This underpinning framework is a: A. Thesis B. Case study C. Philosophy D. Law

35. When a personality theory's internal constructs and relational statements are stated so clearly and explicitly that they can be easily measured without ambiguity, the theory meets the standard of: A. Parsimony B. Heuristic value C. Precision D. Comprehensiveness

36. What term describes general relational statements that may be true or false, are not tested directly, and must have specific hypotheses derived from them before empirical testing can occur? A. Postulates B. Operational definitions C. Propositions D. Case studies

37. Creativity is a highly complex, abstract concept that encompasses multiple dimensions like divergent thinking, artistic expression, and problem-solving speed. It is best classified as a: A. Dependent variable C. Post hoc explanation D. Theoretical law

38. The theoretical claim "As an individual's level of introversion increases, their preferred size for social gatherings decreases" links two psychological constructs together. This is a: A. Conceptual definition B. Postulate C. Relational statement D. Operational definition

39. To ensure that research findings are reliable and not a fluke, a team of investigators repeats an original experiment exactly as it was conducted the first time. This process is called: A. Debriefing B. Replication C. Self-affirmation D. Partial correlation

40. According to self-affirmation theory, how do individuals naturally respond when their view of themselves as morally adequate is threatened? A. They abandon the theory entirely B. They try to restore or reaffirm their self-integrity C. They develop lower levels of baseline cortisol D. They immediately demand a debriefing session

A. Reference:

Part 3 Developmental Psychology

Developmental psychology offers a profound examination of the human journey, tracing the continuous and systematic changes that occur from conception through the end of life. This course explores the multifaceted dimensions of growth, encompassing physical maturation, cognitive shifts, emotional resilience, social integration, and the evolution of moral reasoning, while anchoring these concepts in established theoretical frameworks. Adopting a systems perspective, we will analyze how individuals are shaped by the dynamic interplay between their internal biology and their external environments. Crucially, we will examine these interactive dimensions within the specific cultural tapestry of the Filipino setting, investigating how local values, family structures, and societal norms uniquely influence the developmental milestones and lived experiences of the Filipino person.

Table C summary: Fundamental concepts in human development and their clinical applications. The table defines seven key terms, starting with human development as the study of change from conception to death, which helps clinicians distinguish normal variation from pathology. Life-span development emphasizes that growth is a lifelong process, aiding in the diagnosis of age-related conditions like Alzheimer's disease. Physical development covers biological and brain changes, where injuries can cause executive dysfunction. Cognitive development tracks mental abilities like memory and reasoning, which are essential for identifying intellectual and learning disorders. Psychosocial development focuses on emotions, personality, and social relationships, where severe disruptions can manifest as personality disorders. Social construction describes culturally invented categories, such as burnout, which influence how mental health is perceived and diagnosed. Finally, maturation refers to biologically programmed sequences, such as the neurological development required for bladder control, which prevents the clinical complications of forced training.

8. Nuclear Family A traditional household unit consisting of one or two parents and their immediate children (biological, adopted, or stepchildren).

- Clinical Connection: High conflict, divorce, or domestic instability within this primary unit is a powerful environmental stressor linked to Conduct Disorder in children.

9. Extended family A multigenerational network of relatives (grandparents, aunts, uncles, cousins) who may live together or provide close-knit structural support.

Clinical Connection: Serves as a vital protective factor; strong extended family networks can buffer a child against developing Major Depressive Disorder following parental loss.

10. Risk factors Internal or external conditions that statistically increase the chances of a negative or maladaptive developmental outcome.

Clinical Connection: Exposure to poverty, community violence, or parental substance abuse is a major risk factors that compound the likelihood of an adolescent developing an Anxiety or Substance Use Disorder.

11. Ethnic gloss An overgeneralization or stereotype about a cultural group that completely ignores the rich diversity and differences existing within that group.

Clinical Connection: Can lead to diagnostic bias, such as an assessor assuming an Asian patient won't express depression emotionally due to a perceived "stoic culture," thereby missing critical symptoms.

12. Normative Biological or environmental events that happen in a highly similar way for the vast majority of people within a specific group.

Clinical Connection: Experiencing puberty around age 12 is a normative biological event. Experiencing it significantly earlier or later can be psychologically destabilizing.

13. historical generation A group of people who are collectively and deeply influenced by a massive historical event (like a war, pandemic, or economic collapse) during their formative years.

Clinical Connection: The generation of adolescents who experienced prolonged isolation during the COVID-19 pandemic shows unique collective spikes in Social Anxiety Disorder.

14. Cohort A demographic group of people who were all born at approximately the same time in history.

Clinical Connection: Used in longitudinal research to ensure that an increase in a disorder (like depression) is due to age rather than the unique cultural era a specific cohort grew up in.

15. Nonnormative An unusual event that happens to a specific person, or a typical event that happens at a highly atypical time of life.

Clinical Connection: Surviving a severe school shooting or losing both parents in early childhood are traumatic nonnormative events that frequently trigger Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (P.T.S.D).

Developmental Dynamics & Theories

16. Imprinting A rapid, instinctive form of learning during a strict critical period where a newborn animal binds itself to the very first moving object it encounters.

- Clinical Connection: While humans don't imprint like geese, early bonding failures in infancy heavily parallel the etiology of Reactive Attachment Disorder (R.A.D) in children.

17. Critical period A highly specific, rigid timeframe in development when an organism must experience a particular event, or its absence will cause irreversible developmental damage.

Clinical Connection: If a fetus is exposed to the Rubella virus during the first trimester (a critical period for organ growth), it can lead to permanent neurological deficits and intellectual disability.

Table 1 summary: This list defines key developmental concepts and theories, pairing each with its clinical application in mental health and rehabilitation. It covers fundamental principles like plasticity, sensitive periods, and scientific methodology, alongside major developmental frameworks including the psychoanalytic perspective, Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, Piaget's stages of cognitive development, and behaviorism. Each entry explains the core concept and provides a clinical connection, such as how early childhood plasticity facilitates rehabilitation, how Freud's psychosexual stages relate to adult neuroses, how Erikson's stages link to specific personality disorders, and how Piaget's formal operations stage is a prerequisite for cognitive behavioral therapy.

Table summary: Psychological learning theories and cognitive concepts, each paired with a specific clinical application. Classical conditioning explains the origins of specific phobias through association, while operant conditioning details how behaviors like compulsions in OCD are maintained through negative reinforcement. Reinforcement is identified as a driver in substance use disorders, whereas punishment, when erratic, is linked to trauma and aggressive disorders. Social learning theory and observational learning describe how behaviors and psychopathology, such as violence or suicide contagion, are transmitted through imitation. Reciprocal determinism illustrates the feedback loop between thoughts, behaviors, and the environment in depression. Finally, self-efficacy is a key factor in treating agoraphobia, while Piaget's concepts of organization and schemas explain the breakdown of thought structures in schizophrenia and the maladaptive patterns found in depression.

Table 1 summary: This collection of psychological and developmental terms defines key concepts in genetics, prenatal development, and infancy, highlighting their clinical relevance to psychiatric and neurodevelopmental disorders. Genetics and environment are represented by concepts like genes, autosomes, and sex chromosomes, alongside epigenesis and niche-picking, which explain how environmental factors and personal choices interact with biological predispositions to influence conditions like depression or substance use disorders. Prenatal development is broken down into specific stages including the germinal, embryonic, and fetal periods, noting that the embryonic stage is the peak period of vulnerability to teratogens, which can cause permanent structural defects. Infancy and early childhood development are characterized by the neonatal period, reflex behaviors such as the Moro and Babinski reflexes, and the emergence of self-awareness and altruistic behavior. Attachment patterns are categorized into secure and avoidant, with secure attachment serving as a psychological buffer against adult anxiety and depression, while avoidant attachment is linked to difficulties with emotional intimacy in adulthood. Throughout the list, clinical connections emphasize how these biological and developmental milestones, when disrupted by stress, trauma, or neurological damage, serve as the foundation for diagnosing various mood, personality, and neurodevelopmental disorders.

Table summary: Developmental psychological concepts and their clinical connections. The list covers attachment patterns, social behaviors, and forms of maltreatment, each linked to specific psychiatric conditions. Ambivalent attachment is associated with Borderline Personality Disorder, while separation anxiety is considered normal in infants but pathological if persistent in older individuals. Social referencing deficits are noted in Autism Spectrum Disorder, and self-concept distortions are seen in Anorexia Nervosa. Self-regulation deficits characterize ADHD and Oppositional Defiant Disorder, whereas a lack of conscience is a hallmark of Antisocial Personality Disorder. Finally, the table details forms of child maltreatment, noting that neglect is the most common type and is linked to Reactive Attachment Disorder, while physical, sexual, and emotional abuse are strongly correlated with PTSD, Dissociative Identity Disorder, and treatment-resistant Major Depressive Disorder, respectively.

99. Egocentrism

Table 16 summary: Key developmental and genetic concepts along with their clinical applications in psychology and psychiatry. The table covers Piagetian concepts including Adaptation, which is the adjustment to new information through assimilation and accommodation; Assimilation, the process of fitting new information into existing schemas; Accommodation, the modification of schemas to fit new information; and Equilibration, the drive to maintain cognitive balance. It also outlines Vygotskian sociocultural theory, detailing the zone of proximal development as the range of learning achievable with guidance, and scaffolding as the temporary support provided to foster independence. Finally, it addresses biological development, defining monozygotic twins as genetically identical, DNA as the chemical code for life, and chromosomes as the structures containing genes. Each concept is paired with a clinical connection, such as the role of monozygotic twins in schizophrenia research, the impact of chromosome anomalies like Down Syndrome, and the use of scaffolding in Dialectical Behavior Therapy.

D. Additional References:

Piaget's term for a young child's cognitive tendency to attribute lifelike qualities, feelings, intentions, and consciousness to inanimate, non-living objects.

Clinical Connection: Perfectly normal in early childhood (e.g., believing a teddy bear is sad). However, if an adult firmly maintains beliefs that inanimate objects are alive and communicating with them, it is classified as a delusion within Schizophrenia.

Piaget's term for a young child's cognitive inability to consider or understand another person's physical point of view or mental perspective, assuming everyone sees, hears, and feels exactly what they do.

Clinical Connection: Normal for a 3-year-old. However, an extreme, pervasive adult inability to empathize with or care about others' viewpoints is a prominent behavioral characteristic seen in Narcissistic Personality Disorder.

•Burg, Dr.. Ethical issues of psychological development. EdTech Press

• Cavanaugh, J. C.. Adult development and aging (9th ed.). Cengage Learning

• Chase, R.. Differential and developmental psychology. Cengage Learning

• Davey, G.. Applied psychology (2nd ed.). John Wiley & Sons

•Feist, G. J.. Psychology: Perspective and connections (5th ed.). McGraw-Hill Education

•Martorell, G.. Life: The essentials of human development. McGraw-Hill Higher Education

•Gillibrand, R., Lam, V., & O'Donnell, V. 50.. Developmental psychology (3rd ed.). Pearson Education.

•Masten, A. S.. Ordinary magic: Resilience in development (2nd ed.). Guilford Press.

•Camras, L. A.. Emotional development across the lifespan. Guilford Press.

•Oakes, L. M., LoBue, V., & Casasola, M.. Infancy: The development of the whole child. Sage Publications. •Steinberg, L.. Adolescence (latest ed.). McGraw-Hill Education.

•Siegler, R., Saffran, J., Gershoff, E., Eisenberg, N., & Leaper, C.. How children develop (6th ed.). Worth Publishers.

E. Practice Test

1. Which term is defined as the scientific study of the processes of change and stability throughout the human life span? A. Life-span Development B. Psychopathology C. Human Development D. Psychosocial Development

2. Tracking developmental milestones to identify early signs of Autism Spectrum Disorder is an example of using which field of study? A. Behaviorism B. Human Development C. Social Construction D. Epigenesis

3. What is the definition of life-span development? A. The concept of human development as a lifelong process, which can be studied scientifically B. An unusual event that happens to a particular person at an unusual time C. The growth of the body and brain, including motor skills D. A natural sequence of physical and behavioral changes

4. Distinguishing normal age-related forgetfulness from Neurocognitive Disorders like Alzheimer's disease in older adults is an example of studying: A. Germinal Development B. Moral Therapy C. Life-span Development D. Structural Autosomes

5. Which domain of development includes the growth of the body and brain, patterns of change in sensory capacities, motor skills, and health? A. Cognitive Development B. Psychosocial Development C. Physical Development D. Behavioral Development

6. Which term describes a pattern of change in mental abilities, such as learning, attention, memory, language, thinking, reasoning, and creativity? A. Psychosocial Development B. Maturation C. Social Learning D. Cognitive Development

7. Diagnosing Intellectual Disabilities or Specific Learning Disorders when a child's mental performance falls significantly below age-matched norms is an application of tracking: A. Physical Development C. Plasticity B. Cognitive Development D. Niche-picking

8. What is psychosocial development?

A. A model that views human development as a series of predictable responses to stimuli

B. The process of taking in new environmental information into an existing schema

C. A pattern of change in emotions, personality, and social relationships

D. The range of modifiability of an individual's performance

9. What is the definition of a social construction?

A. A multigenerational kinship network of parents, children, and other relatives, and how they interact to form a bond that supports and governs processes

B. Conditions that increase the likelihood of a negative developmental outcome when integrated with social support and environmental mechanisms

C. A concept or practice that may appear natural and obvious to those who accept it, but that in reality is an invention of a particular culture or society

D. Coils of D.N.A that consist of functional units called genes, responsible for social interactions among individuals

10. Which term refers to the unfolding of a natural sequence of physical and behavioral changes?

A. Plasticity

B. Adaptation

C. Maturation

D. Imprinting

11. Which term describes a two-generational kinship, economic, and household unit consisting of one or two parents and their biological, adopted, or stepchildren?

A. Extended Family

B. Historical Generation

C. Cohort

D. Nuclear Family

12. What are risk factors?

A. Conditions that increase the likelihood of a negative developmental outcome

B. Biological or environmental events that happen in a similar way for most people

C. Internal standards of behavior that produce emotional discomfort when violated

D. Overgeneralizations about an ethnic group that obscure differences within the group

13. What is ethnic gloss?

A. An unusual event that happens to a particular person at an atypical time through lifespan perspective

B. An overgeneralization about an ethnic or cultural group that obscures differences within the group

C. The temporary, adjustable support given to help a child master a task

D. A child's independent control of behavior to conform to expectations

14. An event that is characteristic of occurring in a similar way for most people in a group is described as:

A. Nonnormative

B. Mechanistic

C. Normative

D. Organismic

15. Which term refers to a group of people strongly influenced by a major historical event during their formative period?

A. Cohort

B. Nuclear Family

C. Extended Family

D. Historical Generation

16. What is a cohort?

A. A group of people born at about the same time C. A set of logically related concepts used to organize data B. A range of modifiability of brain performance D. A collection of genes located in definite positions

17. An unusual event that happens to a particular person, or a typical event that happens at an unusual time of life, is called a:

A. Normative event

B. Nonnormative event

C. Sensitive period

D. Social construction

18. Surviving a severe school shooting or losing both parents in early childhood are provided as examples of:

A. Normative biological events

B. Nonnormative events

C. Epigenetic mechanisms

D. Niche-picking behaviors

19. What is imprinting?

A. The brain's capacity to physically modify its structure through experience

B. An instinctive form of learning in which, during a critical period in early development, a young animal forms an attachment to the first moving object it sees

C. The mechanism that turns genes on or off without changing D.N.A during inter-system communication is governed by the automatic exchange of information

D. The process of changing a cognitive structure to include new information, such as assimilation and accommodation, is critical for learning and cognitive development processes

20. Which term refers to a specific time when a given event, or its absence, has a specific, irreversible impact on development?

A. Sensitive period

B. Z.P.D

C. Latency stage

D. Critical period

21. In developmental psychology, how is plasticity defined?

A. The period of development between conception and birth

B. The tendency to attribute life to objects that are not alive

C. The inability to consider another person's point of view

D. The range of modifiability of performance 22. What are sensitive periods? A. Times in development when a person is particularly open to certain kinds of experiences B. Rigid windows where an environmental absence causes permanent damage C. Unconscious psychological strategies used to reduce acute anxiety D. The 22 pairs of chromosomes are not related to sexual expression

23. Which term is defined as a coherent set of logically related concepts that seeks to organize, explain, and predict data? A. Hypotheses B. Theory C. Schema D. Model

24. What are hypotheses? A. Automatic, involuntary, innate responses to stimulation B. Internalized sets of moral standards that self-regulate behavior C. Organized patterns of thought and behavior used in specific situations D. Possible explanations for phenomena, used to predict the outcome of research

25. Which model views human development as a series of predictable responses to external stimuli? A. Organismic model B. Psychoanalytic model C. Mechanistic model D. Sociocultural model

26. Which model views human development as internally initiated by an active organism and as occurring in a sequence of qualitatively different stages? A. Mechanistic model B. Organismic model C. Behavioral model D. Reciprocal model

27. Which developmental perspective views human development as shaped by unconscious forces that motivate human behavior? A. Cognitive perspective B. Sociocultural perspective C. Psychoanalytic perspective D. Behavioral perspective

28. According to Freudian theory, what is psychosexual development? A. A bidirectional interactive triangle of personal traits, behavior, and environment that determines the likelihood of an individual to form personal traits B. An unvarying sequence of stages of childhood personality development in which gratification shifts from the mouth to the anus and then to the genitals C. A child's independent control of behavior to conform to social expectations set by the environment D. The process of developing a sense of whether the world is a good and safe place

29. What is the correct order and age range for Freud's first three psychosexual stages? A. Oral (birth to 18 months), Anal (18 months to 3 years), Phallic (3 to 6 years) B. Anal (birth to 18 months), Oral (18 months to 3 years), Phallic (3 to 6 years) C. Oral (birth to 18 months), Phallic (18 months to 3 years), Latency (3 to 6 years) D. Sensorimotor (birth to 18 months), Anal (18 months to 3 years), Genital (3 to 6 years)

30. According to Erik Erikson, what is the core psychological conflict during birth to 12 to 18 months? A. Initiative versus guilt B. Intimacy versus isolation C. Integrity versus despair D. Basic trust versus mistrust

31. Which of Erikson's stages occurs in young adulthood and involves a person seeking to make deep commitments to others or otherwise suffering from self-absorption? A. Initiative versus guilt B. Intimacy versus isolation C. Integrity versus despair D. Basic trust versus mistrust

32. According to Piaget, what occurs during the sensorimotor stage? A. The infant gradually becomes able to organize activities in relation to the environment through sensory and motor activity B. The child becomes attached to the parent of the other sex and identifies with the same-sex parent C. The person can think abstractly, deal with hypothetical situations, and think about possibilities D. The child attributes life to objects that are not alive

33. What is behaviorism? A. A theory that human behavior is driven entirely by unconscious trauma and is free from observation and other factors B. A learning theory that emphasizes the predictable role of the environment in causing observable behavior C. The realization that one's existence is separate from other people, making one's perception unique D. The study of how environmental experiences change gene expression

34. What is classical conditioning? A. Learning based on the association of a behavior with its consequences B. Learning through directly watching and imitating the behavior of models C. Learning based on associating a stimulus that does not ordinarily elicit a response with another stimulus that does elicit the response

D. The tendency to look at another person's emotional expression to interpret a situation and act upon it, forming behavioral patterns of response

35. Learning based on the association of a behavior with its consequences is called: A. Classical conditioning B. Operant conditioning C. Observational learning D. Scaffolding

36. In operant conditioning, reinforcement is a process that: A. Erases an old cognitive schema entirely B. Turns off a genetic instruction inside a cell C. Weakens a behavior, decreasing the likelihood of repetition D. Strengthens a behavior, increasing the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated

37. What is reciprocal determinism? A. Bandura's term for bidirectional forces, person, behavior, and environment, that affect development B. The difference between what a child can do alone and what they can do with help C. The process of changing a cognitive structure to include new information D. The physical expression of a deeply hidden unconscious conflict

38. What is self-efficacy? A. Realization that one's existence is separate from others B. A child's mental picture of their personal abilities and traits C. A sense of one's capability to master challenges and achieve goals D. An internalized set of moral standards that produces guilt to act on a situation

39. What is Piaget's term for organized patterns of thought and behavior used in particular situations? A. Schemas B. Formals C. Organizations D. Autosomes

40. According to Piaget, what is assimilation? A. The creation of categories or systems of knowledge B. Changes in a cognitive structure to include new information C. The tendency to seek a stable balance among cognitive elements D. The incorporation of new information into an existing cognitive structure

41. What is the definition of accommodation? A. The automatic, involuntary startle response to a loud noise B. Temporary support given to help a child master a task C. The failure to meet a dependent's basic physical survival needs D. Piaget's term for changes in a cognitive structure to include new information

42. Which term describes the difference between what a child can do alone and what the child can do with help? A. Scaffolding B. Sensitive Period C. Niche-picking D. Z.P.D

43. Twins resulting from the division of a single zygote after fertilization are called: A. Dizygotic twins B. Monozygotic twins C. Autosomal twins D. Epigenetic twins

44. What is the definition of epigenesis? A. A mechanism that turns genes on or off and determines the functions of body cells B. The tendency of a person to seek out environments compatible with their genotype C. The age of an unborn baby is dated from the last menstrual cycle D. An intense and unreasonable fear of a specific object

45. Which term refers to the characteristic disposition, or style of approaching and reacting to situations? A. Self-concept B. Attachment C. Emotion D. Temperament

46. What is the gestational stage that covers the first 2 weeks of prenatal development, characterized by rapid cell division and blastocyst formation? A. Embryonic stage B. Fetal stage C. Germinal stage D. Neonatal stage

47. Children born with a smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, executive dysfunction, and microcephaly are demonstrating symptoms of: A. S.I.D's B. F.A.S C. Severe Childhood Neglect D. Separation Anxiety Disorder

48. An infant attachment pattern in which a baby rarely cries when separated from the primary caregiver and avoids contact on his or her return describes: A. Secure attachment B. Avoidant attachment C. Ambivalent attachment D. Resistant attachment

49. What is animism? A. The process of seeking another person's perception of an ambiguous situation B. Piaget's term for the inability to consider another person's point of view C. The continuous failure to provide essential emotional support and love D. The tendency to attribute life to objects that are not alive

50. What is egocentrism? A. A disruptive detachment from one's physical body or identity B. An internalized set of values that controls an adult's moral conduct C. A child's mental picture of their physical appearance and body mass D. Piaget's term for the inability to consider another person's point of view

Answer key: 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. A 40. D 41. D 42. D 43. B 44. A 45. D 46. C 47. B 48. B 49. D 50. D Psi end of Part 3 Psi

Image summary: A minimalist graphic showing the outline of a human head in profile, containing a psi symbol that transitions into the nib of a fountain pen. The design symbolizes the intersection of psychology and written expression or academic study.

A. References:

Part 4 Psychological Assessment and Testing

B. Course Description

This course provides a comprehensive orientation into the technical and ethical rudiments of psychological testing, moving from the foundational principles of psychometrics to their practical application in the field. Students will engage deeply with the scientific mechanics of test construction, with a rigorous emphasis on item analysis, reliability, and validity to ensure the integrity of psychological measurement. Beyond theory, the course offers hands-on guidance in the administration, scoring, and interpretation of objective cognitive and affective instruments across diverse professional landscapes, including educational, industrial, clinical, and government sectors. Throughout this journey, we will navigate the critical ethical considerations and contemporary trends unique to the Philippine setting, ensuring that our practice as future mental health professionals remains culturally sensitive, legally compliant, and scientifically sound.

Table 1 summary: Key terminology and concepts in psychological assessment, organized into definitions and practical examples. The entries cover foundational assessment elements including Utility, which measures real-world cost-effectiveness; Psychological Test, defined as a standardized tool for behavior analysis; and Content, Format, and Administration, which describe the subject matter, delivery mode, and standardized environment of a test. The table further defines Score, Scoring, and Cut Score as the processes and thresholds used to quantify and categorize performance. Finally, it addresses Assessment Methods and Clinical Tools, specifically Psychometric Soundness, which covers reliability and validity; Psychometric Utility, which assesses the practical advantage of a tool; and Personality tests, which are used to map psychological traits and interpersonal tendencies.

Table C summary: A reference list of psychological assessment methods and concepts, ranging from standard testing to observational and simulation-based techniques. The list defines specific diagnostic tools such as achievement and aptitude tests, which measure current mastery or future potential, alongside data gathering methods like interviews, case history analysis, and portfolio reviews. It also details observational practices, distinguishing between behavioral monitoring, naturalistic observation of real-world actions, and the use of targeted behaviors for specific data collection. Finally, it outlines simulation-based assessment, covering role-play techniques and computer-generated environments used to evaluate performance against explicit outcome measures.

Table 1 summary: This list defines key concepts in psychological assessment, starting with the 50. Baseline Measure, which establishes a reference point before intervention. The subsequent items detail technology and reporting methods, beginning with 51. Computer-Assisted Psychological Assessment (CAPA), which uses digital tools to support assessors. Scoring processes are categorized by location, distinguishing between 52. Local Processing, performed on-site, and 53. Central Processing, handled at a remote headquarters. Reports are categorized by depth, ranging from the 54. Simple Scoring Report, which lists raw scores, to the 55. Extended Scoring Report, 56. Interpretive Report, and 57. Consultative Report, which provide increasingly technical and clinical analysis. The 58. Integrative Report offers the most comprehensive view by combining automated scores with external data like behavioral observations. Finally, 59. Computer Adaptive Testing (CAT) describes a dynamic format that adjusts question difficulty based on the test-taker's performance.

Table summary: Definitions and examples for foundational concepts in measurement and data organization. Measurement scales are categorized by their mathematical properties, ranging from the Nominal scale, which uses arbitrary labels, to the Ordinal scale, which provides rank order, and the Interval scale, which features equal distances between points but no absolute zero. The Ratio scale represents the highest level of measurement with both equal intervals and a true absolute zero. Variables are further distinguished as Continuous scales, which allow for fractional values, or Discrete scales, which are limited to whole numbers. Finally, data organization methods include Frequency Distributions, which list the occurrence of individual scores, and Grouped Frequency Distributions, which cluster scores into brackets for readability, all derived from a Distribution of Raw Scores, which are the initial, unprocessed values obtained from a test.

Table summary: Definitions and examples for various types of assessment norms and sampling methods. Norms provide comparative benchmarks, such as age norms based on average scores for specific age brackets, grade norms for consecutive school levels, and national norms derived from representative population samples. Other specialized norms include national anchor norms for aligning scores between different tests, subgroup norms for narrow demographic segments, and local norms for specific regional populations. Sampling methods include stratified sampling, which selects participants in proportion to demographic strata, and stratified-random sampling, which adds a randomized selection process within those strata. Non-probability methods include purposive sampling, where researchers manually select participants based on professional judgment, and convenience sampling, which uses whoever is readily available.

92. Observed Score (X) The actual, visible numerical score that an examinee physically achieves on a test, which is a combination of their true ability and measurement error (X = T + E) .

Table summary: Key concepts in psychological testing measurement theory, organized as a reference list of definitions and examples. The list defines True Score as a hypothetical, error-free measurement of ability, contrasted with Error, which represents external or internal distractions. It breaks down score variance into True Variance, reflecting genuine trait differences, and Error Variance, which accounts for random noise or test flaws. Reliability is defined as the proportion of total variance attributed to true variance, indicating consistency. The table further distinguishes between Measurement Error, which covers all irrelevant influences, Systematic Error, which is a predictable and consistent bias, and Random Error, which results from unpredictable, fluctuating chance variables.

Figure 1 summary: A table defining seven key terms related to psychological and educational assessment, including ability, achievement, and aptitude tests, as well as cut scores, empirical approaches, test formats, and group tests. Each entry provides a conceptual definition followed by a practical assessment example to illustrate how these terms are applied in testing contexts.

Table 27 summary: Definitions and assessment examples for key psychological testing concepts, ranging from Human Ability to Theoretical test construction. Human Ability encompasses achievement, aptitude, and intelligence as linked cognitive powers. Individual Differences refers to measurable psychological variations between people, while an Individual Test is restricted to one examinee at a time, such as the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Intelligence is defined as the global capacity to reason and adapt, and Personality Tests are categorized into structured objective formats with fixed choices and projective unstructured formats using open-ended stimuli. Psychological Testing covers the practical administration and scoring of assessments, whereas Psychometrics is the scientific discipline dedicated to the mathematical modeling and measurement of traits. Finally, Scales provide the standardized frameworks for converting raw data into interpretable values, Scoring is the systematic process of assigning performance codes, and the Theoretical approach to test construction relies on conceptual models rather than raw data alone.

Table 33 summary: Definitions for statistical visualizations and testing standardization concepts. Visualizations include histograms, which use connected bars for frequency; bar graphs, which use separate bars for non-numeric categories; and frequency polygons, which use connected lines to show data points. Testing concepts focus on norm-referenced assessment, where individual scores are interpreted against a reference group. Key terms include norm, representing an average performance; norms, the collective data from a reference group; and normative sample, the specific group tested to create a benchmark. The process of developing these benchmarks is called norming, which involves standardized test administration. User norms or program norms refer to comparisons against convenient, local groups rather than scientific samples. Finally, a percentile is defined as a metric indicating the percentage of a sample whose scores fall below an individual's raw score.

D. Additional References:

• Cavanaugh, J. C.. Adult development and aging (9th ed.). Cengage Learning

•Davey, G.. Applied psychology (2nd ed.). John Wiley & Sons

•Dy, G. C.. Field methods in psychology. Institutional Press

•Feist, G. J.. Psychology: Perspective and connections (5th ed.). McGraw-Hill Education

•Hanaway, M.. Exploring the role of culture in mediation: An existential approach for mediators, coaches, psychologists, and organizations. Routledge

•Johnson, H.. Psychological disorders and therapies. John Wiley & Sons

•Kellmann, M.. Recovery and stress in sport: A manual for testing and assessment. Routledge

•Nairne, S. J.. Psychology (7th ed.). Sage Publications

•Schacter, D. L.. Psychology (6th ed.). Worth Publishers

•Stone, J.. Trauma impacts: The repercussions of individual and collective trauma. John Wiley & Sons •Whitcomb, S. A.. Behavioral, social, and emotional assessment of children and adolescents. Routledge

E. Practice Test

1. Which type of test explicitly measures a person's current execution, speed, accuracy, or skill level on a specific task, such as counting words typed per minute? A. Aptitude Test B. Personality Test C. Ability Test D. Projective Test

2. An assessment built specifically to measure what a person has already learned or mastered after a period of instruction, like a standardized end-of-semester exam, is a(n): A. Achievement Test C. Intelligence Test B. Aptitude Test D. Baseline Test

3. Which type of test is designed to measure a person's latent potential or future capacity to learn an entirely new skill, such as using the S.A.T to predict college success? A. Achievement Test B. Aptitude Test C. Portfolio Assessment D. Case History Assessment

4. A predetermined numerical reference point used by experts to split a set of test data into two or more distinct classifications, such as "Pass" and "Fail", is a: A. Raw score B. Scale C. Cut score D. Format

5. When a test-construction approach or conclusion is based strictly on real-world data collected from past test-takers rather than on abstract theories, it is considered: A. Theoretical B. Subjective C. Empirical D. Nonverbal

6. Which term refers to the structural design, physical layout, item types, or method of delivery used for an assessment, such as choosing an online interactive layout over a paper sheet? A. Utility C. Content B. Format D. Administration

7. Giving a nationwide college entrance exam to 500 applicants seated simultaneously in a university gymnasium is an example of a(n): A. Individual Test B. Group Test C. Portfolio Test D. Naturalistic Test

8. What broad, overarching concept includes a person's achievement, aptitude, and intelligence, recognizing that these cognitive powers are deeply linked and difficult to isolate completely? A. Psychometrics C. Human Ability B. Individual Differences D. Psychometric Soundness

9. A workplace assessment is administered to discover why one employee is introverted while another is extraverted. This highlights variations between people known as: A. Human Ability B. Nonverbal Behavior C. Target Behaviors D. Individual Differences

10. A clinical psychologist sits face-to-face with a single patient to administer the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. This is an example of a: A. Group Test B. Individual Test C. Naturalistic Observation D. Role-Play Test

11. An individual's global, generalized capacity to think abstractly, reason logically, solve novel problems, adapt to new environments, and profit from experience is defined as: A. Achievement B. Aptitude C. Psychometrics D. Intelligence

12. What type of test features fixed, clear-cut choices such as answering "True" or "False" to self-report statements to measure typical traits? A. Projective Personality Test B. Structured Personality Test C. Naturalistic Role-Play Test D. Aptitude Test

13. A testing center manager orders test booklets, trains examiners, and verifies that testing guidelines are followed. This practical field represents: A. Psychometrics B. Neuropsychological Evaluation C. Psychological Testing D. Portfolio Assessment

14. Which highly specialized scientific discipline focuses entirely on the theory, mathematical modeling, and precise measurement of psychological traits and abilities?

A. School Psychology

B. Psychometrics

C. Behavioral Observation

D. Naturalistic Role-Play

15. Standardized mathematical frameworks, systems, or scoring rules used by psychologists to convert raw data into interpretable values like standard percentiles are called:

A. Formats

B. Formats

C. Portfolios

D. Scales

16. Awarding 2 points for a completely correct response, 1 point for a partially correct response, and 0 points for an incorrect response described the process of:

A. Norming

B. Administration

C. Scoring

D. Utility analysis

17. Designing a new leadership test explicitly around a conceptual model asserting that leadership consists of exactly four distinct behavioral pillars is an approach.

A. Theoretical

B. Empirical

C. Naturalistic

D. Baseline

18. An organization analyzes whether purchasing an expensive new executive screening test actually reduces costly hiring mistakes. This analysis evaluates the test's:

A. Psychometric Soundness

B. Content

C. Format

D. Utility

19. A standardized measurement tool, device, or interactive procedure designed to elicit and analyze a specific sample of human behavior to score a psychological variable is a:

A. Psychological Test

B. Portfolio Assessment

C. Case History Assessment

D. Baseline Measure

20. Ensuring that a test built for corporate accountants contains actual financial ledger problems rather than geometry formulas refers to managing the test's:

A. Format

B. Content

C. Administration

D. Utility

21. Administering a clinical intake scale through a secure mobile application rather than a face-to-face interview changes the assessment's:

A. Content

B. Baseline Measure

C. Format

D. Psychometric Soundness

22. A psychometrician reading testing instructions word-for-word from a manual in a quiet room free of external distractions is executing a standardized:

A. Scoring

B. Format

C. Portfolio

D. Administration

23. Receiving a letter grade of "A" or a numerical index of "120" on a spatial reasoning subtest is a summary statement reflecting performance known as a:

A. Score

B. Cut Score

C. Scale

D. Format

24. Scanning an answer sheet through an optical mark reader to calculate total correct responses instantly is an automated version of:

A. Administration

B. Evaluation

C. Scoring

D. Formulation

25. A university sets a minimum score of 550 on an English proficiency exam to determine which international students can skip remedial writing. This threshold value is a:

A. Raw Score

B. Cut Score

C. Psychometric Utility

D. Standardized Scale

26. Checking a test manual's statistical coefficients to ensure a new anxiety test yields steady scores across multiple weeks and actually measures anxiety relates to its:

A. Computer-Assisted Assessment

B. Psychometric Soundness

C. Outcome Measures

D. Structural Format

27. A clinic decides to use a 5-minute computerized A.D.H.D screening tool because it accurately flags at-risk children while saving the clinic thousands of dollars. This refers to the tool's:

A. Psychometric Soundness

B. Nonverbal Behavior

C. Target Behaviors

D. Psychometric Utility 28. A psychiatrist administers the Million Clinical Multiaxial Inventory to help differentiate between a client's mood swings and an underlying character disorder. This instrument is a:

A. Achievement Test

B. Personality Test

C. Aptitude Test

D. Portfolio Assessment

29. A school tests a student's reading level using a standardized reading comprehension exam to see if they understand a specific subject at a third-grade level. This is a(n):

A. Achievement Test C. Projective Test

B. Aptitude Test D. Role-Play Test

30. Administering a spatial relations test to architecture applicants to see if they have the talent or readiness to visualize three-dimensional structures evaluates their:

A. Portfolio

B. Achievement

C. Aptitude

D. Baseline

31. What method of gathering information relies on direct, interactive verbal communication characterized by a reciprocal exchange between two people?

A. Behavioral Observation

B. Case History Assessment

C. Portfolio Assessment

D. Interview

32. Documenting that a client wore mismatched clothes, kept their arms tightly crossed, and completely avoided eye contact during an interview captures their:

A. Nonverbal Behavior

B. Targeted Behaviors

C. Outcome Measures

D. Baseline Measures

33. A deliberate, curated collection of an individual's real-world work samples compiled over time to showcase their ongoing growth, skills, or achievements is a:

A. Case History

B. Portfolio

C. Simple Scoring Report

D. Scale

34. When a panel of senior psychology professors grades a graduate student's portfolio of clinical case notes to determine if they pass, they are performing a:

A. Naturalistic Observation

B. Case History Assessment

C. Portfolio Assessment

D. Neuropsychological Evaluation

35. Transcripts, school files, letters, medical documents, and archival accounts that log an individual's historical background are known as:

A. Portfolio materials

B. Case History Data

C. Nonverbal data

D. Target metrics

36. A forensic psychologist analyzes a defendant's historical school records and juvenile arrest sheets to evaluate their baseline risk for future violent behavior. This is a:

A. Role-Play Test

B. Case History Assessment

C. Clinical Evaluation

D. Naturalistic Observation

37. A comprehensive process where a mental health professional reviews a person's psychological, emotional, and behavioral wellness to establish a formal diagnosis is a:

A. Portfolio Assessment

B. Neuropsychological Evaluation

C. Clinical Evaluation

D. School Psychology program

38. Which specialized assessment examines the relationship between the physical brain and behavior, such as determining if cognitive decline is due to Alzheimer's disease or a stroke?

A. Clinical Evaluation

B. Neuropsychological Evaluation

C. Case History Assessment

D. Portfolio Assessment

39. Which field of practice applies principles of clinical psychology and educational psychology to meet the needs of students within a school system?

A. Psychometrics

B. Neuropsychology

C. School Psychology

D. Behavioral Economics

40. A descriptive, narrative profile compiled by organizing case history data to show how an individual's unique traits and environmental conditions interacted to produce chronic P.T.S.D is a:

A. Role-Play Test

C. Psychological Scale

B. Portfolio Assessment

D. Case Study

41. Monitoring and tracking an individual's explicit actions using direct sight or electronic recording devices to log quantitative or qualitative data is called:

A. Case History Assessment

B. Clinical Evaluation

C. Behavioral Observation

D. Portfolio Assessment 42. A researcher sits unobtrusively on a school playground bench to document how children naturally resolve sharing disputes during recess. This is an example of: A. Naturalistic Observation B. Naturalistic Role-Play C. Computer-Generated Simulation D. Individual Testing

43. Formally defining "off-task behavior" as looking away from the teacher or notebook for more than 10 consecutive seconds isolates specific actions for study known as: A. Nonverbal behaviors B. Targeted Behaviors C. Outcome Measures D. Baseline Measures

44. An assessment technique where individuals are instructed to act out a fictional, simulated situation such as pretending to mediate an argument between coworkers is a: A. Case History B. Portfolio C. Naturalistic Observation D. Role-Play

45. A structured, formal evaluation procedure where an examinee's performance inside a simulated scenario is systematically rated using explicit scoring criteria is a: A. Case History Assessment B. Portfolio Assessment C. Role-Play Test D. Behavioral Observation

46. The actual physical, emotional, and verbal action of portraying a character or operating within a simulated assessment scenario is known as: A. Scoring B. Norming C. Testing D. Role-Playing

47. Testing a resident's emergency skills by forcing them to interact with a professional live actor who is realistically mimicking an acute psychotic episode is a: A. Naturalistic Observation B. Naturalistic Role-Play C. Computer-Generated Simulation D. Case History Assessment

48. A neuropsychologist uses interactive software or virtual reality driving environments to safely test whether a patient with a traumatic brain injury has recovered their quick reaction times. This utilizes a: A. Naturalistic Observation B. Portfolio Assessment C. Computer-Generated Simulation D. Case History Assessment

49. Evaluating a customer service applicant's role-play based on a scale measuring "tone of voice," "accuracy of information," and "conflict resolution" describes the: A. Baseline Measures B. Target Behaviors C. Outcome Measures D. Nonverbal Behaviors

50. Measuring a patient's weekly panic attack frequency before they begin a 10-week course of C.B.T establishes a: A. Cut Score B. Baseline Measure C. Outcome Measure D. Psychometric Utility score

Part 5 Industrial/ Organizational Psychology

Industrial-Organizational Psychology serves as a strategic bridge between human behavior and organizational effectiveness, providing an evidence-based overview of how psychological principles drive performance and harmony in the workplace. This course navigates the intricate architecture of organizational structures and systems, examining how leadership styles, motivational frameworks, and communication processes shape a company's collective pulse. We will delve into the mechanics of high-stakes dynamics, including conflict resolution, collaborative problem-solving, and team evolution, while exploring the critical role of human resource development in managing talent and facilitating large-scale organizational change. Synthesizing research findings with practical application, students will learn to optimize the human dimension of work, fostering environments where both individual professional growth and systemic organizational development can thrive in tandem.

Table C summary: A comprehensive glossary of key terms, definitions, and practical labor examples spanning the field of Industrial and Organizational Psychology. The content is organized into three thematic areas: fundamental concepts and subfields, historical pioneers and foundational studies, and technical processes related to job analysis, evaluation, and personnel selection. It defines core approaches such as the Industrial approach, focused on management and technical skills, versus the Organizational approach, focused on human behavior and culture. It also details professional tools like the Position Analysis Questionnaire, O*Net, and various ability or skill tests used in recruitment and legal compliance, while providing historical context through the contributions of figures like Walter Dill Scott, Hugo Munsterberg, and the Gilbreths.

Table summary: Concepts related to workplace management, employee motivation, and psychological phenomena affecting performance. It defines 11 terms ranging from appraisal errors like Strictness Error, where managers give unfairly low ratings, to training methods like Case Studies and Living Case, which involve analyzing real or hypothetical workplace problems. The list also covers psychological drivers including Motivation, general Self-Esteem, and its specific forms, Chronic Self-Esteem and Situational Self-Esteem. Finally, it outlines performance-influencing techniques and phenomena such as Experience With Success, the Self-Fulfilling Prophecy, the Pygmalion Effect, where high expectations boost performance, and the Golem Effect, where low expectations lead to decreased performance.

Table 45 summary: Assessment methods and statistical concepts used in hiring. The list includes practical evaluation techniques like the In-Basket Technique, which tests prioritization skills, and Simulations, which observe performance under pressure. Other methods include Leaderless Group Discussions to observe natural leadership, Business Games for strategic collaboration, and Computer-Adaptive Testing, which adjusts question difficulty to pinpoint skill levels. The list also defines common testing pitfalls and statistical tools, such as Barnum Statements, which are overly vague, and Adverse Impact, which describes unintentional discrimination. It also covers validity concepts like Single-Group Validity, where a test only works for one demographic, and Differential Validity, where accuracy varies between groups, alongside Multiple Regression, a statistical method for combining various test scores into a single performance prediction.

Table 59 summary: Hiring and performance evaluation methods used to assess candidates and employees. Unadjusted Top-Down Selection ranks applicants solely by test scores to fill openings. The Compensatory Approach allows high performance in one area to offset low performance in another. A Passing Score sets a mandatory minimum threshold for eligibility. The Multiple-Hurdle Approach requires candidates to pass sequential stages to advance. Banding treats scores within a specific range as equivalent to allow for other selection criteria. Standard Error (Se) accounts for potential score variance due to testing unreliability. The Peter Principle describes the phenomenon where employees are promoted until they reach a level of incompetence. 360-Degree Feedback gathers performance reviews from an employee's bosses, peers, subordinates, and clients. Employee Comparison evaluates workers by ranking them against each other rather than against objective standards, with Rank Order serving as a specific method for ordering employees from best to worst.

Table 69 summary: Performance appraisal methods and common rating errors. The list covers evaluation techniques including Paired Comparisons, which rank employees through head-to-head matchups, and Forced Distribution, which mandates specific percentages for performance tiers. Other methods include measuring the Quantity Of Work, using Graphic Rating Scales for trait assessment, and utilizing Behavioral Checklists for yes-or-no action verification. The table also defines common evaluation flaws, such as Contamination where external factors influence scores, and Distribution Errors where managers fail to use the full rating scale. Specific distribution mistakes include Leniency Error, where all employees receive inflated ratings, and Central Tendency Error, where every employee is graded as average. Finally, it notes Frame Of Reference Training as a method to help managers align their rating standards.

Table 90 summary: Key concepts in workplace motivation and employee psychology. Intrinsic Motivation defines work driven by personal enjoyment, while the Work Preference Inventory is a tool used to assess whether staff prioritize internal satisfaction or external rewards. Hygiene Factors represent essential baseline needs like pay and safety that prevent dissatisfaction, whereas Motivators are the core job duties that actively inspire performance. Feedback serves as a constructive tool for tracking progress, and Self-Regulation Theory describes how employees independently manage their own work habits. The remaining concepts focus on equity, where Inputs are the personal contributions an employee invests, Outputs are the rewards received, and the Inputs/Outputs Ratio is the mental comparison between the two. Finally, Organizational Justice posits that perceived fairness in company practices is a primary driver of employee loyalty.

D. Additional References

1. Which branch of psychology applies scientific principles to understand, predict, and improve human behavior in the workplace? A) Clinical Psychology C) Industrial/Organizational Psychology B) Educational Psychology D) Forensic Psychology

2. Which approach to work focuses on determining job competencies, staffing the roles correctly, and improving those competencies through training? A) Organizational Approach C) Ergonomic Approach B) Industrial Approach D) Human Relations Approach

3. The approach in I-O psychology that focuses on corporate structures, leadership styles, and cultures to ensure workers are safe, motivated, and satisfied is the: A) Industrial Approach B) Personnel Approach C) Ergonomic Approach D) Organizational Approach

4. Which specific subfield of the industrial approach explicitly handles H.R mechanics like writing job descriptions, hiring, setting pay scales, and grading performance? A) Organizational Psychology B) Personnel Psychology C) Human Factors D) Ergonomics

5. Which subfield is primarily concerned with the social and psychological side of work, including leadership traits, employee morale, team dynamics, and conflict management? A) Personnel Psychology C) Organizational Psychology B) Ergonomics D) Job Evaluation

6. What field concentrates on workplace design, human-machine interaction, and physical fatigue to maximize safety and minimize physical stress? A) Personnel Psychology B) Ergonomics C) Organizational Psychology D) Career Development

7. Who was the early pioneer who published The Theory of Advertising and Increasing Human Efficiency in Business? A) Hugo Munsterberg B) John Watson C) Henry Gantt D) Walter Dill Scott

8. Which early pioneer is considered a founder of I-O psychology and famously studied streetcar drivers to see what mental traits made them safe versus accident-prone? A) Hugo Munsterberg B) Frank Gilbreth C) Thomas Edison D) John Flanagan

9. Which behavioral pioneer served as a major in the U.S. Army during World War 1 and developed perceptual and motor tests for potential pilots? A) Walter Dill Scott B) Henry Gantt C) John Watson D) Frank Gilbreth

10. Which pioneer increased the efficiency of building, repairing, and loading cargo ships, inspiring a visual timeline chart used by modern dockworkers? A) Thomas Edison B) Henry Gantt C) Hugo Munsterberg D) John Watson

11. Who famously created a grueling, 150-item knowledge test administered to over 900 applicants to filter out who could work in his labs? A) Walter Dill Scott B) Thomas A. Edison C) Lillian Gilbreth D) John Flanagan

12. Which pioneer scientists used time-and-motion studies to reduce bricklayers' movements from 18 motions to 4.5, thereby doubling productivity and reducing fatigue? A) Frank Gilbreth & Lillian Moller Gilbreth B) Walter Dill Scott & John Watson C) Henry Gantt & Thomas Edison D) McCormick & Mecham

13. Which studies demonstrated that interpersonal interactions and supervisor attention play a massive role in employee behavior, causing productivity to rise simply because workers know they are being studied? A) Purdue Studies C) Hawthorne Studies B) Flint Studies D) Flanagan Incident Studies

14. What is the term for ambiguous workplace situations where no clear law, rule, or company policy exists, forcing individuals to rely on their personal morals? A) Type B Dilemmas only C) Ethical Dilemmas B) Technical Errors D) Distribution Errors

15. In which type of ethical dilemma is there a high level of uncertainty, no single best solution, and every choice carries both positive and negative consequences? A) Type A Dilemma B) Type B Dilemma C) Leniency Error D) Rationalizing Dilemma

16. Also known as a rationalizing dilemma, in which situation does an individual know exactly what the right choice is but struggles because the wrong solution benefits them personally? A) Type A Dilemma B) Type B Dilemma C) Frame-of-Reference Dilemma D) Contamination

17. The systematic process of gathering, analyzing, and structuring information about a job's components, characteristics, and requirements is called: A) Job Evaluation B) Job Rotation C) Job Analysis D) Banding

18. What is the brief, two-to five-page written summary of the tasks and job requirements found during a job analysis? A) Position Analysis Questionnaire B) Job Elements Inventory C) Job Evaluation Worksheet D) Job Description

19. Under the K.S.A.O's framework, what is defined as the body of factual or theoretical information needed to perform a task? A) Knowledge B) Skill C) Ability D) Other Characteristics

20. Which term refers specifically to the learned, practiced proficiency to perform a specific task with competence, such as writing S.Q.L code? A) Knowledge B) Skill C) Ability D) Trait

21. What is the term for a person's basic, enduring underlying capacity to learn new skills, solve problems, or perform a wide range of tasks? A) Knowledge B) Skill C) Ability D) Tangible factors

22. In a job analysis, personal factors like personality, interests, and motivation, along with tangible credentials like licenses and degrees, fall under: A) Knowledge B) Skills C) Abilities D) Other Characteristics

23. Which structured instrument developed at Purdue University contains 194 items organized into six main dimensions, including information input and mental processes? A) J.S.P B) J.E.I C) P.A.Q D) F.J.A

24. Which tool is a revised version of the P.A.Q developed in 1985 that updates item content and places an emphasis on having a trained job analyst, rather than the worker, fill it out? A) J.S.P B) J.E.I C) F.J.A D) C.I.T

25. Which pre-made job analysis survey contains 153 items and is written at a 10th-grade reading level so everyday workers can easily fill it out themselves? A) P.A.Q B) J.E.I C) J.C.I D) O.Net

26. Which quick job analysis method was designed by Fine in 1955 to help the federal government analyze and compare thousands of jobs based on Data, People, and Things? A) J.C.I B) P.A.Q C) F.J.A D) C.I.T

27. Which massive, 400-plus question tool developed in England is the only job analysis method that contains a highly detailed section dedicated to tools and equipment? A) J.S.P B) J.C.I C) F.J.A D) J.E.I

28. What national online job analysis database was created by the federal government to replace the old Dictionary of Occupational Titles?

A) O.Net C) J.C.I

B) P.A.Q D) C.I.T

29. Which method developed by John Flanagan discovers actual stories of excellent or poor job behavior that make the difference between successful or unsuccessful performance?

A) Functional Job Analysis

B) Job Evaluation

C) C.I.T

D) Multiple Regression

30. What is the two-stage process of determining a job's monetary worth by looking at internal pay equity and external pay equity?

A) Job Analysis

B) Job Description

C) Job Evaluation

D) Banding

31. When fighting employees meet with a neutral third party who helps them talk out their issues to reach a voluntary, mutually agreed-upon solution, they are engaging in:

A) Arbitration

B) Mediation

C) Banding

D) Stack Ranking

32. When two disputing sides present their cases to a neutral third party who then makes a final, legally binding decision on who is right, the process is called:

A) Mediation

B) Multiple-Hurdle

C) Arbitration

D) Job Rotation

33. What form of sexual harassment occurs when a supervisor explicitly ties employment benefits, promotions, or keeping a job to the granting of sexual favors?

A) Hostile Environment

B) Quid Pro Quo

C) Leniency Error

D) Distribution Error

34. When an unwanted pattern of conduct related to gender unreasonably interferes with an individual's work performance by making the workplace offensive or intimidating, it is called a:

A) Quid Pro Quo case

B) Type A Dilemma

C) Hostile Environment

D) Negligent Reference

35. Better known as "headhunters," these firms recruit talent for high-paying, non-entry-level positions and always charge their fees to the hiring organization rather than the applicant.

A) Assessment Centers

B) State Employment Agencies

C) Executive Search Firms

D) Career Networks

36. A written document from a trusted source expressing an opinion regarding an applicant's ability, past performance, character, or potential for future success is a:

A) Job Description

B) Letter of Recommendation

C) Work Sample

D) Critical Incident Log

37. What term describes the act of an applicant lying on their application materials about what work experience or education they actually possess?

A) Contamination

B) Barnum Statements

C) Leniency Error

D) Résumé Fraud

38. If an organization hires an applicant without running a background check, and that employee later commits a crime while on duty that a check would have detected, the company is liable for:

A) Negligent Reference

B) Adverse Impact

C) Negligent Hiring

D) Differential Validity

39. What legal situation occurs if a former employer completely fails to provide relevant, known safety or misconduct information to a new organization that officially requests a reference?

A) Negligent Hiring

C) Adverse Impact

D) Distribution Error

40. Which type of tests are designed to measure how much job-specific information an applicant already knows, and are used primarily for public sector promotions?

A) Physical Ability Tests

B) Applicant Knowledge Tests

C) Cognitive Ability Tests

D) Perceptual Ability Tests

41. Which testing strategy is used when applicants are not expected to know how to perform the job at the time of hire, but have the capacity to learn it during training?

A) Applicant Skill testing

B) Work Sample testing

C) Applicant Ability testing

D) Job Knowledge testing 42. Tests that measure dimensions such as oral/written comprehension, numerical facility, memorization, mathematical reasoning, and general learning are testing: A) Cognitive Ability C) Psychomotor Ability B) Perceptual Ability D) Physical Ability

43. Testing an applicant's vision sharpness, color discrimination, glare sensitivity, sound localization, and hearing sensitivity measures their: A) Cognitive Ability B) Perceptual Ability C) Psychomotor Ability D) Physical Agility

44. Which type of test measures an applicant's finger dexterity, hand-hand coordination, control precision, reaction time, and arm-hand steadiness? A) Cognitive Ability Test B) Perceptual Ability Test C) Psychomotor Ability Test D) Physical Strength Test

45. Jobs requiring extreme stamina and strength like firefighters or lifeguards measure capacity through job simulations or physical agility tests. These are called: A) Psychomotor Tests B) Physical Ability Tests C) Cognitive Ability Tests D) Knowledge Tests

46. What type of assessment evaluates the extent to which an applicant already possesses a practical, hands-on, job-related proficiency, such as dicing an onion? A) Applicant Ability Test B) Cognitive Test C) Applicant Skill Test D) Barnum Test

47. When a job applicant is required to perform an actual piece of the day-to-day job tasks such as editing a messy draft article during the interview, they are completing a: A) Cognitive Ability Test B) Work Sample C) Position Questionnaire D) Job Evaluation

48. A selection technique characterized by using multiple assessment methods where multiple experts observe and score applicants performing simulated job tasks is a/an: A) Assessment Center B) Executive Search Firm C) Rank Order Group D) Job Components Registry

49. Which assessment center exercise forces a candidate to go through a mock desktop workspace to prioritize, delegate, and answer urgent daily emails and memos? A) Leaderless Group Discussion B) Business Game C) In-Basket Technique D) Paired Comparison

50. What type of hands-on exercise is considered the "backbone" of the assessment center because it allows assessors to see an applicant completely "in action" during realistic scenarios? A) Barnum Statements B) Simulation C) Computer-Adaptive Testing D) Graphic Scales

A. Main Reference

Part 6 Abnormal Psychology

Abnormal Psychology provides a comprehensive exploration into the nature, etiology, and treatment of psychological disorders, challenging students to look beyond stigma to understand the complexities of the human mind in distress. Throughout this course, we will navigate the clinical nomenclature and classification systems essential for professional practice, ensuring a firm grasp of how mental health conditions are defined and diagnosed globally. However, our study will not be confined to Western paradigms; we will critically examine indigenous concepts of abnormality and behavior, acknowledging the profound impact of cultural context on the perception of mental health. Integrating these diverse perspectives with a rigorous focus on ethical considerations in clinical practice, students will develop a nuanced, compassionate, and culturally sensitive framework for understanding the challenges faced by individuals with psychological disorders and the interventions that support their recovery.

C. Key Terms, Definition, & Application

Table summary: Core concepts and terminology in the study of psychological disorders. The table defines six key terms: Abnormal Behavior, which is behavior that is unusual, distressing, or disruptive; Psychological Disorder, a formal condition involving significant disruption to functioning; Psychopathology, the scientific study of these disorders; Scientist-Practitioner, a professional who integrates clinical practice with research; Etiology, the study of the causes or origins of a condition; and Prevalence, which measures how common a disorder is within a specific population.

Example: Saying that roughly 1% of the global population currently lives with Schizophrenia.

Table 1 summary: Definitions of key biological and diagnostic concepts in mental health, organized into categories of stress and neurotransmitters, genetics, and clinical assessment. Stress Response refers to the body's emergency mode under pressure, while neurotransmitters like Serotonin, Dopamine, and Norepinephrine act as chemical messengers regulating mood, reward, and alertness. The Genetic and Biology section explains Genetic Vulnerability as an inherited risk, Gene-Environment Interaction as the interplay between traits and life experiences, and Epigenetics as the process where environment alters gene expression without changing DNA. Finally, Clinical Assessment is defined as the systematic process professionals use to gather information to understand a person's struggles.

Example: A psychologist spends a few hours interviewing a client, having them complete questionnaires, and reviewing their medical history to determine why they are struggling in school.

Table summary: Descriptions of psychological conditions numbered 61 through 68, covering body-focused repetitive behaviors, somatic concerns, and dissociative disorders. Trichotillomania involves the urge to pull out one's own hair, while Excoriation Disorder is characterized by chronic skin picking. Somatic Symptom Disorder involves extreme anxiety over physical symptoms, whereas Illness Anxiety Disorder is the intense fear of having a serious illness despite having few or no symptoms. Conversion Disorder refers to the manifestation of unexplained physical neurological symptoms due to psychological stress. Dissociation is described as a detachment from one's environment or identity as a trauma response, which can manifest as Dissociative Amnesia, involving the loss of memory for personal information or traumatic events, or Dissociative Identity Disorder, where a person experiences distinct, separate personality states.

Table summary: Definitions and examples for various mood and dissociative disorders. Depersonalization-Derealization Disorder involves chronic detachment or feeling that the world is unreal. Major Depressive Episode is defined by at least two weeks of intense sadness or loss of interest, while Major Depressive Disorder requires one or more such episodes without a history of mania. Persistent Depressive Disorder is a chronic, lower-intensity depression lasting at least two years. Mania is a severe, week-long state of euphoria or irritability with a break from reality, whereas Hypomania is a milder, four-day period of high energy without loss of reality. Bipolar I Disorder is marked by at least one full manic episode, Bipolar II Disorder involves alternating severe depression and hypomania, and Cyclothymic Disorder is a two-year pattern of shifting between mild hypomanic and mild depressive symptoms.

Table summary: A list of psychological and physiological health conditions numbered 78 through 85, detailing their definitions and clinical examples. The entries include Suicidal Ideation, which involves thoughts or plans of self-harm; Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, and Binge-Eating Disorder, which are distinct eating disorders characterized by restrictive intake, cycles of bingeing and purging, or compulsive overeating without purging; Obesity, noted as a physical condition influenced by psychological factors; and sleep-related disorders including Insomnia Disorder, Narcolepsy, and Parasomnia, which cover chronic sleep difficulty, uncontrollable daytime sleep attacks, and abnormal sleep-state behaviors like sleepwalking.

Table summary: A list of clinical terms and conditions related to health, psychology, and substance use. It defines Biofeedback as a technique for monitoring body metrics to manage the nervous system, and Chronic Pain as long-term physical pain exacerbated by stress. It details sexual health issues including Sexual Dysfunction, characterized by distress in the sexual response cycle, and Paraphilic Disorder, which involves atypical urges causing impairment or harm. It also covers Gender Dysphoria, defined as distress from a mismatch between gender identity and assigned sex. Finally, it outlines Substance Use Disorder as a destructive pattern of usage, alongside Tolerance, which is the need for increased doses to achieve the same effect, and Withdrawal, the physical and mental sickness that occurs when a dependent substance is discontinued.

94. Gambling Disorder A behavioral addiction involving a compulsive, uncontrollable urge to keep betting money on games of chance, despite it ruining your finances, family life, and career.

Table 55 summary: Key clinical concepts and historical models of mental health. The first section defines clinical indicators, including Incidence as the rate of new cases, Course as the disorder's timeline pattern, Prognosis as the expected future outcome, and Comorbidity as the presence of multiple simultaneous disorders. The second section outlines historical and theoretical models of understanding: the Biological Model attributes illness to physical factors like chemical imbalances, the Psychological Model focuses on emotional and cognitive roots, the Supernatural Tradition reflects ancient beliefs in external demonic forces, Moral Therapy highlights the 19th-century shift toward humane treatment, and Psychoanalysis centers on uncovering buried subconscious conflicts.

Table 56 summary: Definitions and examples of psychological concepts, behavioral models, and emotional states. Defense Mechanism refers to subconscious mental tricks used to avoid painful realities, such as projecting one's own anger onto others. The Behavioral Model views abnormal behavior as learned habits, while Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy focuses on changing unhelpful thought patterns and behaviors. Emotion is defined as a short-lived, intense reaction to an event, whereas Affect is the visible, outward expression of that internal state. Regarding emotional states, Mood is a long-lasting background state coloring one's perspective, Anxiety is a persistent worry about future threats, Fear is an immediate alarm response to present danger, and Panic is an abrupt, overwhelming wave of terror occurring even without obvious danger.

Table 58 summary: Core concepts and tools used in the psychological diagnosis and assessment process. It defines diagnosis as matching symptoms to recognized disorders, using the DSM-5 as the standard guidebook for criteria. The quality of these assessments is measured by reliability, which is the consistency of results across tests or observers, and validity, which confirms the test measures what it claims to measure. Standardization ensures fairness by applying uniform administration and scoring across all individuals. The table also outlines assessment methods including the clinical interview for gathering history, behavioral assessment for observing actions in real-time, neuropsychological testing for evaluating brain function through cognitive tasks, and neuroimaging for capturing physical or electrical brain activity.

Table 43-51 summary: Research methodologies and specific anxiety-related disorders. Research methods include correlational studies, which identify connections between variables without proving causation, and experiments, which manipulate an independent variable to measure a change in a dependent variable. Other methods include case studies for rare conditions and the concept of clinical significance, which evaluates if treatment results provide meaningful real-world improvements. The clinical conditions described are Generalized Anxiety Disorder, characterized by persistent, uncontrollable worry; Panic Disorder, defined by sudden, unexpected attacks and the resulting fear of future occurrences; and Agoraphobia, an intense fear of situations where escape or help might be difficult.

Table 60 summary: Definitions and examples for nine specific psychological conditions, ranging from anxiety disorders to obsessive-compulsive behaviors. Specific Phobia involves paralyzing fear of a single object or situation, while Social Anxiety Disorder centers on the fear of being judged in social settings. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder both involve severe reactions to trauma, with the latter distinguished by a shorter duration of three days to one month. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is defined by the cycle of distressing obsessions and repetitive compulsions, which are individually defined as unwanted intrusive thoughts and forced neutralizing routines. Finally, Body Dysmorphic Disorder involves an obsession with minor physical flaws, and Hoarding Disorder is characterized by the persistent inability to discard possessions, resulting in dangerously cluttered living spaces.

Table 65 summary: Descriptions of psychological conditions and behaviors, ranging from item 95 to 100. Personality Disorder refers to an inflexible, lifelong pattern of unhealthy thinking and behavior that causes significant life problems. Specific types include Borderline Personality Disorder, defined by a fear of abandonment and volatile relationships, and Antisocial Personality Disorder, characterized by a lack of remorse and disregard for the rights of others. Schizophrenia is a severe psychotic disorder involving a loss of touch with reality, such as hearing voices or holding bizarre beliefs. These conditions are further defined by specific symptoms like Delusion, which is a fixed, illogical belief held despite contrary evidence, and Hallucination, which is a sensory experience of something that is not physically present.

D. Additional References

Example: Standing alone in a dead-silent, empty concrete basement but clearly hearing the loud, distinct voices of two people arguing right next to your ear.

Abnormal psychology: Clinical perspectives on psychological disorders.. McGraw-Hill Education

Chance, P.. Learning and behavior (8th ed.). Cengage Learning

Johnson, H.. Psychological disorders and therapies. John Wiley & Sons

Long, E.. Abnormal Psychology. University Press

Nairne, S. J.. Psychology (7th ed.). Sage Publications

Feist, G. J. & Rosenberg, E.. Psychology: Perspective and connections (5th ed.). McGraw-Hill Education

Schacter, D. L.. Psychology (6th ed.). Worth Publishers

Summers, F.. Object relations theories and psychopathology: A comprehensive text. Routledge

Understanding psychological disorders.. Cengage Learning

Uriarte, G. G.. Learning general psychology the easy way. Wiseman's Books Trading, Inc.

1. Which term is defined as a pattern of psychological dysfunction linked with distress, impairment, or behavior that is not typical or culturally expected? A. Psychopathology B. Abnormal Behavior C. Mental Illness D. Comorbidity

2. A person washing their hands 50 times a day until they bleed because they are terrified of germs is an example of which concept? A. Neurosis B. Major Depressive Episode C. Abnormal Behavior D. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy

3. What is a psychological disorder? A. A temporary bad mood caused by an argument with a friend B. The process of giving, scoring, and interpreting a test in a consistent manner C. Condition involving significant disturbance in thoughts, emotions, or behaviors that causes distress or impaired functioning

D. An immediate alarm reaction to a present danger or threat that can be attributed to the actual situation without other unseen factors

4. Major Depressive Disorder, where a person feels so intensely sad and exhausted for weeks that they cannot get out of bed or go to work, is an example of a: A. Psychological Disorder B. Paranoid Delusion C. Defense Mechanism D. Somatic Symptom

5. What is the definition of psychopathology? A. The presence of two or more disorders in the same person, but with completely independent diagnoses from each other B. The scientific study of psychological disorders, including their symptoms, causes, development, and treatment C. The study of how environmental experiences can influence gene expression D. A historical treatment approach that emphasized humane care and respect

6. A researcher studying how genetics and childhood trauma combine to trigger schizophrenia is working in the field of: A. Moral Therapy B. Neuroimaging C. Psychopathology D. Epigenetics

7. A mental health professional who uses scientific research to guide assessment and treatment while also contributing clinical observations to science is known as a: A. Psychiatrist B. Scientist-Practitioner C. Behavior Analyst D. Case Study Researcher

8. Which of the following is the definition of etiology? A. The number of new cases of a disorder that appear during a specific time period B. The predicted future course or likely outcome of a disorder C. The process of determining whether symptoms meet specific criteria D. The study of the causes or origins of a disorder

9. Discovering that a client's depression stems from a mix of low serotonin levels, a recent divorce, and a habit of negative thinking describes the condition's: A. Prognosis B. Course C. Prevalence D. Etiology

10. What does prevalence measure? A. The number of new cases that appear during a specific time period in a specialized location from the population B. The total number or proportion of people who have a disorder within a specific population and time period C. The physical expression of an emotion that a clinician can see D. The consistency of a measurement over time

11. Stating that roughly 1% of the global population currently lives with Schizophrenia is an example of: A. Incidence B. Prevalence C. Validity D. Comorbidity

12. Which term describes the number of new cases of a disorder that appear during a specific time period? A. Prevalence B. Course C. Incidence D. Prognosis

13. Tracking how many teenagers are diagnosed with an eating disorder for the very first time in a single year measures the disorder's: A. Incidence B. Comorbidity C. Clinical Significance D. Reliability

14. What is the definition of the "course" of a disorder? A. The total cost of psychological treatment over a lifetime regardless of the presence of insurance B. The pattern of development, change, or progression of a disorder over time C. The process of matching symptoms to a textbook label D. An inherited tendency that increases a person's risk

15. Terms like "chronic" or "episodic" describe a disorder's: A. Affect B. Validity C. Course D. Standardization

17. What is comorbidity? A. The presence of two or more disorders in the same person B. A severe stress reaction that lasts for a limited period after trauma C. A strongly held false belief that persists despite evidence against it D. The process by which genetic risk and environmental experiences influence each other

18. An individual diagnosed with both gad and Alcohol Use Disorder simultaneously is an example of: A. Overdiagnosis B. Comorbidity C. Epigenetics D. Double Incidence

19. Which model explains abnormal behavior by emphasizing brain functioning, genetics, neurotransmitters, or other physical processes? A. Psychological Model B. Behavioral Model C. Biological Model D. Supernatural Tradition

20. Explaining A.D.H.D as an issue caused by a lack of dopamine in the brain's attention centers is an application of the: A. Supernatural Tradition B. Biological Model C. Psychological Model D. Behavioral Model

21. Explaining a person's social anxiety as the result of a harsh, overly critical parent is an application of the: A. Biological Model B. Moral Therapy C. Neuropsychological Model D. Psychological Model

22. Which historical view explained abnormal behavior as caused by spirits, demons, divine punishment, or other supernatural forces? A. Moral Therapy B. Supernatural Tradition C. Psychoanalysis D. Behavioral Model

23. Drilling a hole in a person's skull in the Middle Ages to let "demons" out belongs to which historical view? A. Moral Therapy B. Biological Model C. Supernatural Tradition D. Psychoanalysis

24. What was the focus of Moral Therapy? A. Punishing clients who broke moral codes of conduct B. Uncovering unconscious conflicts through free association C. Explaining abnormal behavior through brain chemical imbalances D. Humane care, respect, routine, and supportive environments for people with mental illness

25. Philippe Pinel unchaining clients in French asylum so they could walk in the sunshine is an example of: A. Psychoanalysis B. Moral Therapy C. Behavioral Conditioning D. Biofeedback

A. A treatment approach that targets both maladaptive thoughts and problematic behaviors deemed curable by competent physicians B. A treatment approach that seeks to uncover unconscious conflicts believed to influence symptoms and behavior C. A technique that uses monitoring equipment to control bodily processes D. The observation and measurement of behavior in real situations

27. What is an unconscious psychological strategy used to reduce anxiety or protect the ego from distressing thoughts and feelings called? A. Compulsion B. Affect C. Defense Mechanism D. Delusion

28. A person who is secretly full of rage, constantly accusing everyone else around them of being angry and mean, is an example of a defense mechanism called:

A. Free Association

B. Projection

C. Conversion

D. Dissociation

29. Which view states that abnormal behavior is learned through conditioning, reinforcement, observation, or other learning processes?

A. Biological Model

B. Behavioral Model

C. Supernatural Tradition

D. Psychoanalytic Model

30. A child developing a phobia of dogs because they watched their mother scream and hide every time a dog walked by is an example of the:

A. Biological Model

B. Behavioral Model

C. Somatic Model

D. Supernatural Model

31. What type of treatment targets both maladaptive thoughts and problematic behaviors?

A. Psychoanalysis

B. C.B.T

C. Moral Therapy

D. Biofeedback

32. For Panic Disorder, teaching a client to stop thinking "I'm having a heart attack" and stopping them from running away from public spaces is an example of:

A. Behavioral Assessment

B. Neuropsychological Testing

C. Psychoanalysis

D. C.B.T

33. How is emotion defined?

A. A fixed, strongly held false belief

B. A long-lasting background state that persists for weeks

C. The conscious, subjective feeling component of an affect

D. A short-term state involving subjective feeling, bodily arousal, expression, and motivation to act

34. Heart racing, feeling terrified, wide eyes, and jumping back upon seeing a spider is given as an example of:

A. Mood

B. Stress Response

C. Fear

D. Compulsion

35. What is affect?

A. The underlying genetic cause of a mental disorder

B. The conscious, subjective feeling component of an emotion

C. A chemical messenger that crosses a synapse

D. A long-lasting, weeks-long emotional state

36. A client with schizophrenia talking about something terrifying while their voice remains robotic and their face stays completely blank is an example of:

A. A manic mood

B. Panic Disorder

C. Flat Affect

D. Conversion Disorder

37. Which term matches the definition: "A more persistent emotional state that can influence perception, thinking, and behavior"?

A. Emotion

B. Affect

C. Mood

D. Panic

38. What is anxiety?

A. A temporary bad mood that changes within minutes

B. An immediate alarm reaction to present danger or threat

C. The presence of two or more disorders at the same time

D. A future-oriented emotional state involving tension, worry, and anticipation of possible threat

39. Lying awake at 3:00 A.M worrying about whether you will fail a major exam next week is an example of:

A. Fear

B. Panic

C. Anxiety

D. Obsession

40. A sudden, intense surge of fear or discomfort, often accompanied by strong physical symptoms, is called:

A. Anxiety

B. Panic

C. Mood

D. Etiology

41. What is the body's biological and psychological reaction to demands, threats, or pressures called?

A. Anxiety

B. Panic

C. Stress Response

D. Chronic Course

42. Flooding the body with stress hormones, spiking blood pressure, and putting the mind on hyper-alert when hearing a loud car backfire is an example of a:

A. Stress Response

B. Specific Phobia

C. Defense Mechanism

D. Neuroimaging Technique 43. Which term is defined as a chemical messenger that allows neurons to communicate across synapses?

A. Epigenetic Marker

B. Neurotransmitter

C. Independent Variable

D. Biological Variant

44. Which neurotransmitter is specifically noted for its involvement in mood, sleep, appetite, and emotional regulation?

A. Dopamine

B. Serotonin

C. Norepinephrine

D. Cortisol

45. Disruptions in serotonin pathways are commonly noted in which disorders?

A. Schizophrenia and A.D.H.D

B. M.D.D or O.C.D

C. Narcolepsy and Insomnia Disorder

D. Conversion Disorder and Dissociative Amnesia

46. Which neurotransmitter is associated with reward, motivation, movement, and some psychotic symptoms?

A. Serotonin

B. Norepinephrine

C. Dopamine

D. Melatonin

47. Schizophrenia is heavily linked to overactive levels of which neurotransmitter in certain brain pathways?

A. Dopamine

B. Serotonin

C. Norepinephrine

D. gaba

48. Which neurotransmitter is involved in arousal, alertness, stress responses, and mood?

A. Dopamine

B. Serotonin

C. Norepinephrine

D. Insulin

49. Having a hyper-reactive norepinephrine system that triggers a full physical alarm reaction over minor triggers is an example related to:

A. Bipolar I Disorder

B. Panic Disorder

C. Major Depressive Disorder

D. Anorexia Nervosa

50. What is a genetic vulnerability?

A. The physical changes in D.N.A structure caused by trauma

B. The process of giving and scoring a test in a consistent manner

C. Having a 1% chance of catching a disease from the environment

D. An inherited tendency that increases a person's risk of developing a disorder

Overview

Seven About the B.S Psychology Program

The Bachelor of Science in Psychology is a rigorous, comprehensive program designed to prepare students for professional licensure and advanced clinical practice. To ensure academic excellence, the program enforces a strict retention policy that requires students to maintain a minimum grade of 85 and a record free of failing marks.

The curriculum is heavily dependent on research, training students to investigate human behavior through systematic inquiry and data analysis. This scientific approach is complemented by specialized laboratory units, where students conduct psychological testing, run experimental simulations, and make hands-on observations.

Success in this program demands a high level of discipline, requiring everyday reading to keep pace with complex theories and evolving case studies. To monitor academic growth, students must take the annual Dean's Test, which serves as a comprehensive assessment of their learning and progress throughout the year.

As a final safeguard for quality, the program implements a mock board examination; only those who pass this internal assessment are cleared for graduation. Beyond the classroom, the degree remains deeply rooted in social responsibility, frequently involving activities that expose students to various communities and enable them to apply psychological principles in real-world settings.

1. Rationale

B.S Psychology Operations Manual

The Davao Oriental State University (Dorsu) was established through Republic Act No. 11033, committed to providing and sustaining quality education, research, innovation, and extension programs for the populace of Davao Oriental and its neighboring regions.

To ensure the attainment of the said commitment, rules and regulations governing its operations are crafted. These policies are also periodically revisited to examine their relevance and effectiveness

The performance of graduates in licensure examinations and their employment prospects in their field of specialization are indicators that can be used to gauge whether Dorsu is indeed producing quality graduates. The University's performance in the licensure exam has been gradually declining over the past few years, even though it is higher than the national passing rate.

Moreover, with the implementation of the R.A 10931, otherwise known as the “Universal Access to Quality Education”, it's benefits and privileges affected the number of students who finish their courses and dropped out after the 5-year coverage of R.A 10931, it is imperative for the University to revise its admission, retention, and scholastic delinquency policy maintaining quality education while imposing student accountability, Delivering quality instruction and produce quality graduates who will be the manpower of the future generation.

2. Vision, Mission, Core Values, and Goals

Vision

“A university of excellence, innovation, and inclusion”

Mission

1. To elevate knowledge generation, utilization and distribution;

2. To promote inclusive sustainable development through research and extension-based higher quality education, technical vocational skills, responsive to the needs of local and global community; and

3. To produce holistic, creative and inclusive human resource which are responsive and resilient to global challenges while maintaining strong sense of nationhood.

Graduate Outcomes

1. Research-oriented and innovative:

2. Empowered with a sense of professionalism;

3. I.C.T enabled:

4. Effective communicator:

5. Endowed with Filipino and universal values

Institute Goals

1. Academic Excellence: Provide outstanding educational programs that integrate theory and practice in human sciences and communication.

2. Research Innovation: Conduct cutting-edge research that contributes to knowledge advancement and addresses pressing societal challenges.

3. Community Engagement: Forge mutually beneficial partnerships with local, national, and global communities to apply research findings and enhance societal well-being.

4. Student Success: Cultivate a supportive learning environment that promotes student success, personal growth, and career readiness.

3. Program Structure

3.1 Program Overview

As the prevalence of mental health issues continues to increase, there is a growing demand for individuals with a deep understanding of psychological principles who play a vital role in fostering mental health awareness and providing support. Given the persistent threat of both natural and man-made disasters in the region and in Mindanao, it becomes imperative to establish a dedicated group of mental health advocates and responders focused on addressing the psychological needs of survivors. The implementation of a baccalaureate program in Psychology is a pivotal step toward meeting the mental health needs of our communities. This program would empower individuals with the knowledge and skills to navigate the complexities of mental health, enabling them to actively contribute to the well-being of those affected by various stressors, including natural and man-made disasters.

Remarkably, there is currently a unique gap in government-owned universities in the Davao region—none of them offer a B.S Psychology program. This absence presents a notable opportunity to improve access to the program, especially for potential students from marginalized populations.

3.2 Program Description and Objectives

The Bachelor of Science in Psychology program is generally designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of psychological principles, research methodologies, practical skills and ethical awareness necessary for success in various professional settings or further academic pursuits in the field of psychology. Specifically, the program covers various topics aimed to:

1. Provide students with a solid foundation in the core theories, concepts, and historical perspectives of psychology;

2. Develop students' ability to critically evaluate and conduct research in psychology, including designing experiments, analyzing data, and interpreting results;

3. Foster critical thinking skills to enable students to analyze and solve problems using psychological principles:

4. Instill an understanding of ethical guidelines and professional standards in psychology, emphasizing the importance of responsible and ethical behavior in research, practice, and interactions with clients;

5. Enhance students' written and oral communication skills, enabling them to effectively convey psychological concepts and findings to diverse audiences;

6. Promote an awareness of cultural diversity and sensitivity to the impact of culture on behavior, ensuring that graduates can work effectively with individuals from various backgrounds;

7. Provide practical skills applicable to various professional settings, such as counseling, human resources, education, and research;

8. Cultivate effective interpersonal skills and the ability to work collaboratively in teams, preparing students for roles that require strong communication and collaboration;

9. Foster a commitment to ongoing learning and professional development, encouraging graduates to stay current with advancements in the field;

10. Lay the groundwork for students interested in pursuing advanced degrees in psychology or related fields, ensuring they have the necessary knowledge and skills for further specialization;

11. Encourage students to apply psychological principles to address real-world issues and engage with the community, promoting the application of psychology for the betterment of society; and

12. Prepare graduates for a variety of careers by providing a versatile skill set that is applicable across different industries, including but not limited to counseling, human resources, marketing, and education.

3.3 Program Outcomes

Within three to five years after obtaining a bachelor's degree in Psychology, graduates are expected to:

1. Demonstrate the capability to discuss and analyze the major theories and concepts in psychology;

2. Demonstrate and apply the methods of psychological inquiry in building knowledge on local culture and context;

3. Demonstrate and apply psychological theories and methods in personal and professional settings;

4. Demonstrate capability for self-reflection and independent learning in graduate education or in a professional context;

5. Demonstrate professional and ethical behaviors in research and practice in Psychology;

6. Demonstrate the ability to relate appropriately with colleagues, clients, and others in diverse cultural settings;

7. Demonstrate conducting psychological assessments and evaluations.

3.4 Curriculum Overview

Table summary: The first year curriculum consists of two semesters with a total of twenty-five units each. The first semester includes courses such as Life and Works of Rizal, Science, Technology and Society – 1, Gender and Society, The Contemporary World, General Zoology, and Introduction to Psychology, along with physical education and NSTP requirements. The second semester includes Understanding the Self, Purposive Communication, Art Appreciation, Psychological Statistics, Mathematics in the Modern World, and Ethics, also with physical education and NSTP requirements. Most courses carry three lecture units, while General Zoology and Psychological Statistics each include two lab units for a total of five units per course.

Table summary: Second year curriculum requirements organized into two columns of courses. Each course entry includes the course code, title, lecture and laboratory units, total units, and any prerequisite courses. Most courses carry 3 lecture units, with several including 2 laboratory units for a total of 5. The first column includes Hist 11, Bot 100, Lit 10, Psy 201, Psy 202, Psy 203, and PED 3, totaling 20 lecture units and 4 laboratory units. The second column includes Bio 106, Soc Sci 11, Psy 204, Psy 205, Psy 206, and PED 4, totaling 17 lecture units and 6 laboratory units.

Table summary: The third-year psychology curriculum consists of two semesters with a total credit load of 20 units in the first semester and 18 units in the second. The first semester includes six courses: Cognitive Psychology, Abnormal Psychology, three electives covering Educational Psychology, Group Dynamics, and Community Health Psychology, plus Chemical Biology 1. The second semester features six courses: Research in Psychology 1, Industrial Organization Psychology, Psychological Counseling and Psychotherapy, Clinical Psychology, an elective on Human Resource Employees Staffing and Development, and Filipino Psychology. All psychology courses have specific prerequisite requirements, while Chemical Biology 1 is the only course listed without prerequisites.

Table summary: Fourth year psychology curriculum requirements, organized into two columns of three courses each, totaling 18 credit hours. The first column includes Social psychology, Research in Psychology 2, and Competency Skills Assessment, each worth 3 credits. The second column lists Internship (Practicum), Elective 5: Human Behavior in Regenerative Society, and Elective 6: Disaster and Mental Health, also worth 3 credits each. Each course specifies prerequisite requirements, such as Psy 203 for Social psychology and Psy 306-A for Research in Psychology 2.

4. Admission

4.1 Institutional Admission Policy Statement

True to its vision, “A university of excellence, innovation and inclusion”, Dorsu will not deny any student admission to the University by reason of age, sex, nationality, religious belief, or political affiliation. However, the University's absorptive capacity will be considered in determining the total number of first-year enrollees to be admitted, so as not to compromise the quality of education but rather to enhance the likelihood of completion.

in addition, the government is investing heavily in providing free tertiary education. Parents also spend money on their children's allowances and other needs to support their education. Therefore, there is a need to revise the university's admission policy to avoid wasting the money and effort invested.

Thus, it is proposed that all entering freshmen and transferees are required to take the State University Aptitude and Scholastic Test (Suast) for entrance, scholarship, and career guidance purposes. As such, a selective admission policy will be implemented, with the Suast result serving as the basis for admission to Dorsu.

Once the students are admitted to the University, they can be allowed to enroll in the program offering allowed based on their Suast result. However, the Guidance Counselor will provide career counseling based on Suast results.

Every student shall, upon admission, sign the following pledge:

In consideration of my admission to Davao Oriental State

University and of the privileges of a student in this institution.

I hereby promise and pledge to abide by and comply with all the

rules and regulations laid down by the competent authority in the

University and in the institute in which I am enrolled.

Refusal to take this pledge or violation of its terms shall be sufficient cause for denial of admission, subject to due process.

4.2 General Admission Requirement

1 Incoming Freshmen

1.1 A general average of at least 85% or its equivalent with no grades below 80 or its equivalent in all subjects;

1.2 Pass the program's screening and interview;

1.3 Suast passer

1.4 Strand aligned to the program: Preferably stem

2 Shiftee/ Transferee

2.1 G.W.A of 2.25 or better (or its equivalent);

2.2 No failing grade in any subjects previously taken; and

3.3 For Psychology course transferees: Transferees from non-psychology courses can be admitted, but subject to program admission requirements, and must have no failing grades from the previous course. Transferees from engineering courses may be admitted, subject to the program's retention policy.

3 Undergo Screening Procedure

3.1 Take the pen and paper screening test. Earn at least 75 points.

3.2 Take the face-to-face interview with the program representative.

4.3 Retention Policies

Given the selective admissions, it is imperative to strengthen the program's retention policy. This will also ensure that students acquire the knowledge and skills needed to graduate, pass the licensure exam, and secure a job in their field of specialization. The University will institutionalize intervention classes to remediate, equip, and reinforce the students in the program.

1 Student must maintain a General Weighted Average (G.W.A) of 2.50 or better;

2 No “5.00 (Failure)” or D.R.P.D (Dropped)” in any two of the enrolled subjects as per the prescribed curriculum:

3 Probationary status shall be granted to students with a grade below 2.50 in any subject area for the semester. Should the student fail to improve the grade in the next semester, the student shall no longer qualify to pursue the program. Thus, be advised to either shift to another program or transfer to other Higher Education Institution; and

4 The tenure of the students is limited to a maximum of not more than 6 years for the conferment of degree

4.4 Retakes and Re-enrollment Policy

An overwhelming number of students developed a habit of failing, retaking, and re-enrolling in these subjects during the regular semester, without regard for the privilege granted to them, wasting time and government funds.

Notwithstanding the benefits of Free Higher Education under R.A 10931, the University will charge for retakes and re-enrolled subjects to impose accountability to the students.

4.5 Institutional Scholastic Delinquency Policy

Below are the provisions governing undergraduate delinquent students (despite all the mitigating supports provided to them) and the prescribed academic load of the students due to scholastic delinquency:

Warning

- Students who obtain final grades at the end of the semester below 3.00 in 25% - 49% of the total number of academic units in which they are registered shall be warned by the Program Adviser to improve their work and shall carry 75% of the regular load. Delinquent grades include 5.0, 4.0, Dropped, and inc.

2 Probation

- Students who, at the end of the semester, obtain final grades below “3.00” in 50% - 75% of the total number of academic units shall be placed on probation for the succeeding semester, and their load shall be limited to 50% of the regular load. Delinquent grades include 5.0, 4.0, Dropped, and inc.

Probation may be removed by passing a grade of “3.00” or better in more than 50% of the units in the final grades of the succeeding semester.

3 Advise to shift from the Program

- Students who, at the end of the semester, obtain the final grades below “3.00” in at least 76% of the total number of academic units shall be dropped from the program.

Students on probation, in accordance with the above condition, who again fail in 50% of more of the total number of units in the final grades shall be dropped from the rolls of the program, subject to the State University Scholastic Policy.

4 Advise to Rest for One Year

- Students who, at the end of the semester, obtain final grades below “3.00” in 100% of the academic units in which they are given final grades shall be advised to file a leave of absence (L.O.A) for 1 year. If the student intends to seek readmission to the College, he/she will be evaluated by the Guidance Counselor. The readmission will be recommended by the Director of Student Services based on the Guidance Counselor's evaluation. However, the student will not be allowed to enroll in the same program where he/she was dropped from the roll.

For purposes of scholastic standing, a grade “inc” is not included in the computation. When it is replaced by a final grade, the latter is to be included in the semester's grades at the time of the removal. The grade of “4.00” is not counted until it is removed. Once removed, only the final grade of “3.00” or “5.00” is counted.

No re-admission of disqualified students shall be considered by the deans and directors without the favorable recommendation of the State University Guidance Counselor and endorsed by the Director of the Student Services.

5. Program Assessment Guidelines

The introduction of the B.S Psychology program at the university reflects a response to the multifaceted societal demand for mental health professionals, the growing need for a versatile workforce, and the commitment to advancing research and community well-being. With the expanding and diversifying field of psychology, there is an increasing demand for professionals equipped with a robust foundation in psychological principles. The program is designed to cultivate graduates capable of assuming diverse roles in sectors such as healthcare, education, human resources, counseling, and research.

Psychology, as a discipline, intersects with a spectrum of other fields, including sociology, biology, philosophy, and neuroscience. The program's interdisciplinary approach enables students to explore meaningful connections between psychology and other fields of knowledge, fostering a comprehensive understanding of human behavior.

Moreover, graduates of the program, equipped with a profound understanding of mental health and human behavior, will significantly contribute to the overall well-being of communities. Their vital roles may include spearheading mental health advocacy, engaging in community outreach initiatives, and providing essential mental health support services.

5.1 Year Level Admission Requirements

First Year

Students who intend to join the Program should:

1 Meet the requirements for general admission to the University;

2 Passed or satisfied the standard set by the screening committee, such as a written aptitude examination and a panel interview;

3 Be a person of integrity, with no record of disciplinary or criminal charges involving crimes against persons, property, or ethical misconduct at previous institutions and in the community;

4 Have satisfactorily fulfilled all of the requirements set by the University's admission; and

Second Year

To be retained in the Program, a Psychology student must:

1 Have a minimum grade of “2.50” in Psy 101 and Psy 102;

2 Pass and maintain a General Weighted Average (G.W.A) of at least 2.50 in the major courses. A failure in any major course will mean no readmission;

3 Not incur more than nine (9) units of failed or dropped mandated and general education courses during his/her entire stay in the Program;

4 Be actively involved in the co-curricular activities sponsored by the Department and/or by the Psychology Society; and

5 No derogatory record in Dorsu and in the community.

Third Year

To be retained in the Program, a Psychology student must:

1 Have a minimum grade of “2.50” in Psy 201, Psy 202, Psy 203, Psy 204, Psy 205, and Psy 206;

2 Pass and maintain a General Weighted Average (G.W.A) of at least 2.50 in the major courses. A failure in any major course will mean no readmission;

3 Be actively involved in the co-curricular activities sponsored by the Department and/or by the Psychology Society; and

4 No derogatory record in Dorsu and in the community.

Fourth Year

To be retained in the Program, a Psychology student must:

1 Have a minimum grade of “2.50” in Psy 301, Psy 302, Psy 303, Psy 304, Psy 305, Psy 306, Psy 307, Psy 308. Psy 309, Psy 310, and Psy 311;

2 Pass and maintain a General Weighted Average (G.W.A) of at least 2.50 in the major courses and pass the Competency Skills Assessment to be enrolled for Internship in the second semester. A failure in any major course will mean no readmission;

3 Be actively involved in the co-curricular activities sponsored by the Department and/or by the Psychology Society; and

4 No derogatory record in Dorsu and in the community.

Direction: Determine whether the statement is true or false.

Table 1 summary: A list of 39 true or false statements regarding the policies, mission, and academic requirements of the BS Psychology program at Davao Oriental State University. The table covers a wide range of institutional details, including the university's vision and mission, specific program objectives and outcomes, admission criteria such as the SUAST test and grade requirements, and retention policies like the minimum GWA of 2.50 and the six-year maximum residency period.

Answer Key

1. Answer: False

Explanation: Dorsu was established through Republic Act No. 11033. R.A 10931 is the "Universal Access to Quality Education" act.

2. Answer: False

Explanation: The University's performance in the licensure exam has been gradually declining over the past few years, even though it remains higher than the national passing rate.

3. Answer: True

- Explanation: The rationale notes that benefits and privileges affected the number of students who finished their courses and dropped out after the 5-year coverage of R.A 10931.

4. Answer: True

- Explanation: This is the vision statement under Section 2. 5. Answer: True

- Explanation: This matches the second mission statement. 6. Answer: False

- Explanation: The third mission statement explicitly states "while maintaining a strong sense of nationhood."

7. Answer: True

- Explanation: "I.C.T enabled" is listed as Graduate Outcome number 3. 8. Answer: True

- Explanation: This is the definition of the first Institute Goal. 9. Answer: False

- Explanation: Student Success is cultivating a supportive learning environment that promotes student success, personal growth, and career readiness.

- Explanation: This aligns with Institute Goal 3: Community Engagement. 2. Answer: False

- Explanation: None of the government-owned universities in the Davao region currently offer a B.S Psychology program.

12. Answer: True

- Explanation: Section 3.1, it is imperative to establish a dedicated group of mental health advocates and responders due to the persistent threat of natural and man-made disasters in the region and Mindanao.

13. Answer: True

- Explanation: The absence of the program in government universities presents a notable opportunity to improve access, especially for potential students from marginalized populations.

14. Answer: True

- Explanation: Section 3.2 lists numbered objectives from 1 through 12. 15. Answer: True

- Explanation: This is outlined in Objective number 2 under Section 3.2. 16. Answer: False

- Explanation: Objective 6 explicitly states the program aims to "Promote an awareness of cultural diversity and sensitivity to the impact of culture on behavior." 17. Answer: True

17. Answer: True

- Explanation: Objective 12 notes that the program provides a versatile skill set applicable across different industries, including counseling, human resources, marketing, and education.

18. Answer: False

- Explanation: Section 3.3 specifies that these outcomes are expected "Within three to five years after obtaining a bachelor's degree."

- Explanation: "Demonstrate conducting psychological assessments and evaluations" is Program Outcome number 7.

20. Answer: True

- Explanation: Program Outcome number 2: "Demonstrate and apply the methods of psychological inquiry in building knowledge on local culture and context."

- Explanation: Section 4.1, the University's absorptive capacity will be considered in determining the total number of first-year enrollees to be admitted.

22. Answer: True

- Explanation: This is guaranteed in the Institutional Admission Policy Statement. 23. Answer: True

- Explanation: Section 4.1, all entering freshmen and transferees are required to take the State University Aptitude and Scholastic Test (Suast).

24. Answer: False

- Explanation: A selective admission policy will be implemented, with the Suast result serving as the basis for admission to Dorsu.

- Explanation: Section 4.1, the Guidance Counselor will provide career counseling based on Suast results.

26. Answer: True

- Explanation: Refusal to take the pledge or violation of its terms shall be sufficient cause for denial of admission, subject to due process.

27. Answer: False

- Explanation: The general average requirement for incoming freshmen is at least 85%, with no individual subject grade below 80%.

28. Answer: True

- Explanation: Section 4.2 Item 1.4, Strand aligned to the program: Preferably stem.

29. Answer: True

- Explanation: This is the requirement under Section 4.2 Item 2.1 for shiftees/transferees. 30. Answer: False

- Explanation: Transferees from engineering courses may be admitted, subject to the program's retention policy. 31. Answer: True

- Explanation: Section 4.2 Item 3 (Undergo Screening Procedure): Take the pen and paper screening test. Earn at least 75 points. 32. Answer: True

- Explanation: Retention Policy Item 1, Student must maintain a General Weighted Average (G.W.A) of 2.50 or better. 33. Answer: False

- Explanation: Retention Policy Item 2, No '5.00 (Failure)' or D.R.P.D (Dropped)' in any two of the enrolled subjects. This means getting two results in this category triggers a violation. 34. Answer: False

- Explanation: Item 3, if a student fails to improve their grade in the next semester, the student shall no longer qualify to pursue the program. They only have one semester to rectify it.

- Explanation: Retention Policy Item 4, maximum tenure of not more than 6 years for the conferment of a degree. 36 Answer: True

36. Answer: True

- Explanation: Section 4.4, Notwithstanding the benefits of Free Higher Education under R.A 10931, the University will charge for retakes and re-enrolled subjects to impose accountability.

37. Answer: True

- Explanation: Under Scholastic Delinquency, a warning is triggered when final grades fall below 3.00 in 25% to 49% of total academic units. 30% falls directly into this window.

38. Answer: False

- Explanation: Warned students shall carry 75% of the regular load. 39. Answer: True

- Explanation: Delinquent grades include 5.0, 4.0, Dropped, and inc. 40. Answer: True

- Explanation: Probation under Section 4.5 Item 2. 41. Answer: True

- Explanation: Section 4.5 Item 2. 42. Answer: False

- Explanation: Students with below 3.00 in 76% or more of their units are dropped from the program (Advise to shift). The "Advise to Rest for One Year" occurs when a student gets below 3.00 in 100% of their units.

43. Answer: True

- Explanation: Section 4.5 Item 4, 100% failure results in an advice to file a leave of absence (L.O.A) for 1 year.

- Explanation: However, the student will not be allowed to enroll in the same program where he/she was dropped from the roll. 45. Answer: False

- Explanation: For purposes of scholastic standing, a grade 'inc' is not included in the computation. When it is replaced by a final grade, the latter is to be included... 46. Answer: True

- Explanation: Under Section 5.1 (Second Year retention), Item 1 requires a minimum grade of "2.50" in Psy 101 and Psy 102.

47. Answer: False

- Explanation: The rules for Second, Third, and Fourth years. A failure in any major course will mean no readmission.

- Explanation: Second Year retention criteria (Item 3). 49. Answer: True

- Explanation: Item 1 (Psy 201, Psy 202, Psy 203, Psy 204, Psy 205, and Psy 206). 50. Answer: True

- Explanation: Fourth Year retention criteria

8 Declaration

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