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1. In the anatomical position the palm of the hand faces. Answer: Anteriorly
2. are palpable bony landmarks of the posterior spine Answer: Spinous Processes
3. The shoulder that is usually lower. Answer: Dominant
4. Anterior pelvic tilt increases the Blank curve of the lumbar spine. Answer: Lordotic
5. Kyphosis occurs in the blank spine. Answer: Thoracic
6. Highest aspects of the blank crests are level. Answer: Iliac
7. Upper portion of breastbone. Answer: Manubrium
8. Flat feet. Answer: Pes Planus
9. Posterior pelvic tilt occurs if Blank s are too far posterior. Answer: A.S.I.S
10. Muscle that defines the slope of the shoulders. Answer: Trapezius
11. The earlobe is in line with the. Answer: Acromion
12. Medial borders of blank are equidistant from spinous processes. Answer: Scapulae
13. Hyper extended knees. Answer: Genu Recurvatum
14. Blank tendon descends vertically straight to the calcanei. Answer: Ahkillees
15. Bony landmarks on either side of the ankle. Answer: Malleoli
16. Which of the following sets of treatment template components are absolutely vital to forming a valid clinical impression? Answer: observations and aims of treatment
17. When does a therapist obtain informed consent? Answer: Before assessment and before treatment
18. Who is the main administrator of the R.H.P.A? Answer: Ontario Minister of Health
19. Who is the R.H.P.A meant to protect?
Answer: the public
20. The Scope of Practice for massage therapy is found where?
Answer: Massage Therapy Act
21. What is the purpose of the Health Care Act?
A. To enhance the autonomy of persons for whom treatment is proposed.
B. To facilitate treatment for persons lacking the capacity to make decisions
C. to provide rules with respect to consent to treatment that apply consistently in all settings
Answer: all of the above.
22. A person with psychological, physiological, or physical condition that makes certain activities more difficult to perform is said to have a(n)
Answer: disability
23. Which one of the following symptoms definitely requires referral to a medical doctor?
Answer: severe unremitting pain
24. R.O.M testing done with therapist help
Answer: A.A R.O.M
25. First R.O.M testing done
Answer: A.F R.O.M
26. R.O.M testing done solely by the therapist
Answer: P.R R.O.M
27. A.R R.O.M done without joint movement
Answer: Isometric
28. Muscle contraction while the muscle is lengthening
Answer: Eccentric
29. Stretching by contracting the opposite muscles
Answer: Agonist contraction
30. Technique to improve the range of joint
Answer: Peripheral joint mobilization
31. Stretching done by the therapist while client relaxes
Answer: Passive stretching
32. A.R R.O.M done with joint movement
Answer: Isotonic
33. Which of the following is an example of active free range of motion?
Answer: Client moves their arm into flexion by themselves
34. Which statement accurately describes the difference between active free and active assisted range of motion?
Answer: The therapist helps the client actively perform the motion.
35. If a client experiences pain on active and resisted R.O.M but not passive R.O.M, what type of anatomical structure would you expect is causing the client s pain?
Answer: Muscles
36. Choose the correct order of the components in the problem-solving cycle of clinical decision-making
Answer: Client intake/assessment Develop treatment plan Treat or refer Re-assess
37. Each number on the face of a clock represents how many degrees of movement around a circle?
Answer: 30 degrees
38. Which of the following end feels accurately describes what is felt at the end range of normal elbow extension?
Answer: Hard end feel.
39. If a client experiences pain on active and passive R.O.M, but not resisted R.O.M, what type of anatomical structure would you expect is causing the client s pain?
Answer: Joint
40. Which statement regarding active resisted R.O.M testing is true?
Answer: Record the strength of contraction and pain location, intensity, and quality.
41. If a client experiences pain on active resisted testing and has a strong muscle contraction, this indicates that the pain is likely? Answer: Not due to a muscle lesion
42. If a client experiences pain on active resisted testing and has a weak muscle contraction, this indicates that the pain is likely? Answer: Due to a tear in the muscle or tendon
43. When a client experiences pain on active free R.O.M, this indicates? Answer: A problem; but A.F R.O.M is too general to determine cause.
44. Which one of the following pathological processes does not lead to a capsular pattern of restriction? Answer: Intra-articular blockage.
45. Which one of the following end feels is always considered pathological? Answer: Empty
46. An involuntary, convulsive muscle contraction. Answer: Spasm
47. A trigger point that is activated in an overworked synergist muscle. Answer: Secondary
48. Excess interstitial fluid. Answer: Edema
49. Fibrosis of connective tissue. Answer: Contracture
50. A cardinal sign of inflammation that can be palpated by the therapist. Answer: Heat
51. Union of 2 tissue surfaces that are normally separate. Answer: Adhesion
52. A non-specific response to tissue injury. Answer: Inflammation
53. Replacement of injured tissue with connective tissue. Answer: Fibrosis
54. Increased muscle tone. Answer: Hypertonicity
55. A decrease in the size of a cell or tissue. Answer: Atrophy
56. Type of trigger point that is only painful when palpated. Answer: Latent
57. 'Type' of compression used to treat trigger points. Answer: Ischemic
58. Muscle contraction in response to a painful stimulus. Answer: Guarding
59. What are redness, swelling, heat, edema and loss of function signs of? Answer: Acute inflammation
60. What are the two different types of edema? Answer: Pitting and non-pitting
61. Alternating contraction and relaxation of a muscle describes what kind of muscle spasm? Answer: Clonic muscle spasm
62. Which technique is contraindicated when treating someone with an acute muscle spasm? Answer: Passively stretch muscle
63. Which of the following is not a cause of myofascial trigger points? Answer: Medications
64. In which area is fascial clumping not commonly found? Answer: At the distal attachments of rectus abdominis on the pubic bone
65. What effect does atrophy have on muscle cells? Answer: Decrease in size
66. Which of the following is not a possible cause of atrophy? Answer: Overuse
67. What is the main focus when treating chronic adhesions, scar or contractures? Answer: Re-aligning tissue
68. Which one of the following statements regarding edema is True? Answer: Accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces.
69. Hot hydrotherapy applications are contraindicated locally in the treatment of acute inflammatory conditions because they:
Answer: Increase local circulation and lead to increased swelling.
70. When treating contractures in an elderly female client with osteoporosis, application of which technique is most likely contraindicated?
Answer: Isometric Exercise
71. Which one of the following statements regarding connective tissue (C.T) manifestations is True?
Answer: Scars and adhesions are a result of the healing process.
72. Which one of the following statements regarding adhesions & contractures is True?
Answer: Contractures can occur with, or without, inflammation.
73. When the biceps brachii muscle atrophies due to a lack of neurological stimulation, the triceps brachii on the same arm:
Answer: Shortens and develops contractures.
74. When observing a client with acute inflammation, which sign would you not expect to find?
Answer: Atrophy
75. Which one of the following states will not result in hypertonicity of the affected muscles?
Answer: Denervation
76. Which one of the following tissue manifestations is not associated with connective tissue?
Answer: Spasms
77. Which one of the following statements regarding the treatment of healing tissue is True?
Answer: Avoid deep massage at the injury in the acute stage of healing.
78. Which one of the following statements regarding pitting edema is False?
Answer: Edematous tissue is warm to the touch.
79. Which one of the following techniques is contraindicated when treating a client with an acute muscle spasm in the gastrocnemius, due to chronic hypertonicity?
Answer: Passive angular stretch of the gastrocnemius.
80. What is the most common cause of bursitis?
Answer: secondary to other conditions
81. Which condition may result in myositis ossificans?
Answer: A severe contusion
82. How long does it usually take for a contusion to stabilize?
Answer: 24 to 48 hours
83. A second degree strain results in:
Answer: 20 to 75% of muscle fibers torn, and significant loss of function
84. Which of the following is not a long-term aim for treating a strain?
Answer: Maintaining R.O.M
85. Which of the following is not a factor precipitating tendinitis?
Answer: Extensive blood supply
86. Bursitis in the acute stage is:
Answer: Extremely painful
87. Application of which technique is contraindicated when treating a client with sub-acute bursitis?
Answer: Compressions over the bursa
88. What similarities do you see between the upper and lower limb?
Answer: Both have similar structural sectioning (arm/forearm/hand; thigh/leg/foot), long bones, ball-and-socket and hinge joints, short bones connecting the limb to the hand/foot, and metacarpal/metatarsal bones with phalanges.
89. What differences are there between the upper and lower limb?
Answer: The upper limb has 8 carpal bones, while the lower limb has 7 larger tarsal bones. The hands and feet have different orientations, and the toes are shorter and less nimble than the fingers.
90. What do the differences stem from?
Answer: The function of the hands is fine motor coordination, while the feet are primarily used for weight bearing.
91. What is the shape of the articulating surface of the more distal bone in the majority of cases? What is the exception?
Answer: Concave. Exception: The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, which is a saddle joint.
92. In what direction does the therapist glide the distal bone to increase flexion of fingers or toes? To increase extension?
Answer: Flexion: Glide the distal bone toward the palmar/plantar surface. Extension: Glide the distal bone toward the dorsum of the hand or foot.
93. Due to disuse or denervation. Answer: Atrophy
94. Due to chemical, physical or biological injury. Answer: Inflammation
95. Muscle response to acute injury. Answer: Spasms
96. Layers of tissues stuck together. Answer: Adhesions
97. Accumulation of interstitial fluid. Answer: Edema
98. Usually secondary to another condition. Answer: Bursitis
99. Ligamentous injury. Answer: Sprain
100. Fibrosis of connective tissue. Answer: Contracture
101. Loss of continuity of bone. Answer: Fracture
102. Tearing of muscle fibres. Answer: Strain
103. Separation of bony partners of a joint. Answer: Dislocation
104. Increase in the tone of a muscle. Answer: Hypertonicity
105. Microtrauma injury to a tendon. Answer: Tendinosis
106. Injury resulting in internal bleeding. Answer: Contusion
107. Which one of the following is the most commonly sprained ankle ligament?
Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament
108. How do we assess for ligament laxity?
Answer: P.R R.O.M
109. When a portion of the bone attached to a ligament/tendon is detached from the main part of the bone by a violent pull on the ligament or tendon, what type of fracture is it?
Answer: Avulsion
110. Which one of the following is an appropriate R.O.M testing for an acute severe sprain?
Answer: All testing is contraindicated
111 When a bone splinters into several pieces, it is considered what type of fracture?
Answer: Comminuted
112. Treatment of which type of injury is similar to the one for severe sprains?
Answer: Strain
113. Which of the following is not usually a result of a chronic dislocation?
Answer: Denervation atrophy
114. Which of the following factors does not affect the rate at which fractures heal?
Answer: Muscle bulk
115. What is the average length of time until consolidation occurs in an adult?
Answer: 10 to 18 weeks
116. Which one of the following is not an early symptom of osteoarthritis?
Answer: Swelling in the joint
117. This type of pain occurs for a short duration.
Answer: Acute pain
118. Pain that a person feels from a body part that is no longer present is known as what type of pain?
Answer: Phantom limb pain
119. An area of the surface of the body that provides sensory input to the dorsal root of a spinal cord segment is known as what?
Answer: Dermatome
120. What type of pain is perceived in a different area of the body than the actual stimulus is located?
Answer: Referred pain
121. Pain that lasts longer than 14 days is known as what?
Answer: Chronic pain
122. This type of pain comes from stimulating the receptors in the skin, muscle and/or connective tissue.
Answer: Somatic pain
123. What type of pain comes from the receptors in the internal organs?
Answer: Visceral pain
124. Which of the following is a method to reduce pain?
Answer: biofeedback training, massage,exercise. All of the above
125. Analgesic drugs are used to reduce pain.
Answer: True
126. What is the capsular pattern of the glenohumeral joint?
Answer: Lateral rotation, abduction, and medial rotation
127 Patrick's test assesses for which dysfunction?
Answer: Hip
128 Muscles that tend to get weaker when injured or inactive are known as:
Answer: Phasic
129 With a functional hyperlordosis, the muscles that usually need to be strengthened are the:
Answer: Hamstrings, abdominals, and gluteus maximus
130 Which of the following is not an aim of treatment when treating either a functional hyperkyphosis or hyperlordosis?
Answer: Mobilize hypermobile joints
131 The transitional vertebra refers to:
Answer: The vertebra where the scoliosis changes direction
132 The three primary muscles that support the medial longitudinal arch of the foot are the:
Answer: Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior, and fibularis longus
133 Which of the following is not a cause of plantar fasciitis?
Answer: Trauma
134 Chronic stress at the calcaneal attachment of the plantar fascia can cause a calcium deposit known as a:
Answer: Osteophyte
135. With pes planus, the head of the talus is displaced:
Answer: Medially and plantarward
136. Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve at the axilla results in what loss of function?
Answer: Motor functions of coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis are lost. Sensory the lateral forearm is affected.
137 What is the effect of injury only to the sensory branch?
Answer: Only sensation in the lateral forearm is lost; motor function remains intact.
138 What type of loss is experienced with an injury to the C.6 mixed spinal nerve?
Answer: Motor and sensory
139 What type of loss is incurred due to compression of the C.6 dorsal nerve root?
Answer: Sensory only (dorsal nerve roots carry sensory fibres).
140 What type of loss is incurred due to compression of the C.6 ventral nerve root?
Answer: Motor only (ventral nerve roots carry motor fibres).
141 Weakness (paresis) of serratus anterior.
Answer: Motor peripheral nerve (long thoracic nerve
142 Weakness of elbow flexion/wrist extension and altered sensation over the lateral forearm/dorsal thumb.
Answer: Mixed spinal nerve root (C.6 nerve root)
143 Pins and needles in the entire medial thigh and lower lateral thigh extending below the knee.
Answer: Dorsal nerve root (L.3 dermatome)
144 Loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the foot between the hallux and the second toe.
Answer: Cutaneous peripheral nerve
145 Weakness of ankle plantarflexion and extension, and hip extension.
Answer: Ventral nerve root
146 Weakened thumb opposition and sensory loss in the lateral 3 digits.
Answer: Mixed peripheral nerve
147 Vigorous, stimulating treatment.
Answer: Late stage P.N.L treatment
148 Light stroking and gentle compressions.
Answer: Acute stage P.N.L
149. 0/5 muscle strength grade.
Answer: Flaccidity
150. Spasticity.
Answer: C.N.S lesion
151 Hydrotherapy is contraindicated. Answer: Early stage P.N.L treatment
152 Maintain health of affected joints. Answer: Inner to mid-range P.R R.O.M
153 What are the main concepts of precautions, contraindications, and modifications to treatment for peripheral nerve lesions? Answer: Do not disturb or interrupt the healing process. Do not traction or jostle the healing nerve.
154 The central nervous system consists of the... Answer: Brain and spinal cord
155 Joint movement sensation is referred to as... Answer: proprioception
156. Injury to a lower motor neuron might be expected to result in... Answer: Flaccid paralysis of the innervated muscle group
157 In terms of motor function, the cerebellum is concerned with... Answer: Balance
158 The dorsal root ganglion contains... Answer: Sensory neuron cell bodies
159 When stimulating the lateral sole of the foot, a normal infant will extend the great toe, a reflex known as... Answer: Babinski
160 Myotome testing is done by performing which R.O.M? Answer: Active resisted
161 Damage to sensory nerves may result in... Answer: pain, paresthesia, anesthesia. All of the above
162 Which statement regarding acute nerve injuries is False? Answer: Joint play techniques are contraindicated
163. Patellar reflex tests the nerve root.
Answer: L.4
164. Jaw Answer: C.N 5
165. Biceps brachii Answer: C5 C.6
166 Brachioradialis Answer: C5 C.6
167 Triceps brachii Answer: C.7C.8
168. Patellar
Answer: L3L.4
169 Ahkillees
Answer: S.1S.2