Ielts General Training 18
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Ielts General Training 18
eyeelts General Training 18 With Answers
Prepare for the exam with practice tests from Cambridge
Inside you'll find four authentic examination papers from Cambridge University Press & Assessment. They are the perfect way to practise - Exactly like the real exam.
Why are they unique?
All our authentic practice tests go through the same design process as the eyeelts test.
We check every single part of our practice tests with real students under exam conditions, to make sure we give you the most authentic experience possible.
Be confident on exam day:
- Get to know the exam format
- Understand the scoring system
- Train in examination techniques
Resource Bank includes:
- Example Speaking test videos
- Audio for the Listening tests
- Answer keys with extra explanations
- Additional sample Writing answers
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Resource Bank
You can access the Listening test audio files, example Speaking test video, answer keys with extra explanations, additional sample Writing answers by scanning the Q.R code ^{*} .
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Contents
Introduction
Prepare for the exam with practice tests from Cambridge
Inside you'll find four authentic examination papers from Cambridge University Press & Assessment. They are the perfect way to practise – Exactly like the real exam.
Why are they unique?
All our authentic practice tests go through the same design process as the eyeelts test. We check every single part of our practice tests with real students under exam conditions, to make sure we give you the most authentic experience possible.
Students can take these tests on their own or with the help of a teacher to familiarise themselves with the exam format, understand the scoring system and practise exam technique.
Further information
eyeelts is jointly managed by the British Council, I.D.P: eyeelts Australia and Cambridge University Press & Assessment. Further information can be found on the eyeelts official website at ielts dot org.
What Is the Test Format?
eyeelts consists of four components. All candidates take the same Listening and Speaking tests. There is a choice of Reading and Writing tests according to whether a candidate is taking the Academic or General Training module.
Table summary: Two IELTS test options based on candidate goals. The Academic version is for those seeking professional registration or study at undergraduate or postgraduate levels. The General Training version is for those wishing to migrate to Australia, Canada, New Zealand, or the UK, or for those studying or training below degree level.
The test components are taken in the following order:
Table summary: The total maximum test time is 2 hours 44 minutes, consisting of 4 parts and 40 items taking approximately 30 minutes. The test includes a Reading section of 3 sections and 40 items over 60 minutes, available as either Academic Reading or General Training Reading. The Writing section consists of 2 tasks over 60 minutes, available as either Academic Writing or General Training Writing. The Speaking section lasts between 11 to 14 minutes.
General Training Test Format
Listening
This test consists of four parts, each with ten questions. The first two parts are concerned with social needs. The first part is a conversation between two speakers and the second part is a monologue. The final two parts are concerned with situations related to educational or training contexts. The third part is a conversation between up to four people and the fourth part is a monologue.
A variety of question types is used, including: multiple choice, matching, plan/map/diagram labelling, form completion, note completion, table completion, flowchart completion, summary completion, sentence completion and short-answer questions.
Candidates hear the recording once only and answer the questions as they listen. Ten minutes are allowed at the end for candidates to transfer their answers to the answer sheet.
Reading
This test consists of 3 sections with 40 questions. The texts are taken from notices, advertisements, leaflets, newspapers, instruction manuals, books and magazines. The first section contains texts relevant to basic linguistic survival in English, with tasks mainly concerned with providing factual information. The second section focuses on the work context and involves texts containing more complex language. The third section involves reading more extended texts, with a more complex structure, but with the emphasis on descriptive and instructive rather than argumentative texts.
A variety of question types is used, including: multiple choice, identifying information (True/False/Not Given), identifying the writer's views/claims (Yes/No/Not Given), matching information, matching headings, matching features, matching sentence endings, sentence completion, summary completion, note completion, table completion, flowchart completion, diagram-label completion and short-answer questions.
This test consists of two tasks. It is suggested that candidates spend about 20 minutes on Task 1, which requires them to write at least 150 words, and 40 minutes on Task 2, which requires them to write at least 250 words. Task 2 contributes twice as much as Task 1 to the Writing score.
In Task 1, candidates are asked to respond to a given situation with a letter requesting information or explaining the situation. They are assessed on their ability to engage in personal correspondence, elicit and provide general factual information, express needs, wants, likes and dislikes, express opinions, complaints, etcetera
In Task 2, candidates are presented with a point of view, argument or problem. They are assessed on their ability to provide general factual information, outline a problem and present a solution, present and justify an opinion, and evaluate and challenge ideas, evidence or arguments.
Candidates are also assessed on their ability to write in an appropriate style. More information on assessing the Writing test, including Writing assessment criteria (public version), is available at ielts dot org.
Speaking
This test takes between 11 and 14 minutes and is conducted by a trained examiner. There are three parts:
Part 1
The candidate and the examiner introduce themselves. Candidates then answer general questions about themselves, their home/family, their job/studies, their interests and a wide range of similar familiar topic areas. This part lasts between four and five minutes.
Part 2
The candidate is given a task card with prompts and is asked to talk on a particular topic. The candidate has one minute to prepare and they can make some notes if they wish, before speaking for between one and two minutes. The examiner then asks one or two questions on the same topic.
Part 3
The examiner and the candidate engage in a discussion of more abstract issues which are thematically linked to the topic in Part 2. The discussion lasts between four and five minutes.
The Speaking test assesses whether candidates can communicate effectively in English. The assessment takes into account Fluency and Coherence, Lexical Resource, Grammatical Range and Accuracy, and Pronunciation. More information on assessing the Speaking test, including Speaking assessment criteria (public version), is available at ielts dot org.
How Is eyeelts Scored?
eyeelts results are reported on a nine-band scale. In addition to the score for overall language ability, eyeelts provides a score in the form of a profile for each of the four skills (Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking). These scores are also reported on a nine-band scale. All scores are recorded on the Test Report Form along with details of the candidate's nationality, first language and date of birth. Each Overall Band Score corresponds to a descriptive statement which gives a summary of the English-language ability of a candidate classified at that level. The nine bands and their descriptive statements are as follows:
9 Expert user – Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding.
8 Very good user – Has fully operational command of the language with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well.
7 Good user – Has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning.
6 Competent user – Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations.
5 Modest user – Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic communication in own field.
4 Limited user – Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language.
3 Extremely limited user – Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur.
2 Intermittent user – Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English.
1 Non-user – Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words.
0 Did not attempt the test – Did not answer the questions.
Marking the Practice Tests
Listening and Reading
The answer keys are on pages 123 to 130.
Each question in the Listening and Reading tests is worth one mark.
Questions which require letter / Roman numeral answers
For questions where the answers are letters or Roman numerals, you should write only the number of answers required. For example, if the answer is a single letter or numeral, you should write only one answer. If you have written more letters or numerals than are required, the answer must be marked wrong.
Questions which require answers in the form of words or numbers
• Answers may be written in upper or lower case.
• Words in brackets are optional – they are correct, but not necessary.
• Alternative answers are separated by a slash (/)
- If you are asked to write an answer using a certain number of words and/or (a) number(s), you will be penalised if you exceed this. For example, if a question specifies an answer using no more than three words and the correct answer is 'black leather coat', the answer 'coat of black leather' is incorrect.
- In questions where you are expected to complete a gap, you should only transfer the necessary missing word(s) onto the answer sheet. For example, to complete 'in the ...', where the correct answer is 'morning', the answer 'in the morning' would be incorrect.
• All answers require correct spelling (including words in brackets).
- Both U.S and U.K spelling are acceptable and are included in the answer key.
- All standard alternatives for numbers, dates and currencies are acceptable.
• All standard abbreviations are acceptable.
• You will find additional notes about individual answers in the answer key.
Writing
The sample answers are on pages 131 to 139. It is not possible for you to give yourself a mark for the Writing tasks. We have provided high-level model answers written by examiners, with commentaries. Additional sample and model answers can be downloaded from the Resource Bank. These sample and model answers will give you an insight into what is required for the Writing test.
How Should You Interpret Your Scores?
At the end of each Listening and Reading answer key you will find a chart which will help you assess whether, on the basis of your practice test results, you are ready to take the eyeelts test.
In interpreting your score, there are a number of points you should bear in mind. Your performance in the real eyeelts test will be reported in two ways: there will be a Band Score from 1 to 9 for each of the components and an Overall Band Score from 1 to 9, which is the average of your scores in the four components. However, institutions considering your application are advised to look at both the Overall Band Score and the Band Score for each component in order to determine whether you have the language skills needed for a particular course of study or work environment. For example, if you are applying for a course which involves a lot of reading and writing, but no lectures, listening skills might be less important and a score of 5 in Listening might be acceptable if the Overall Band Score was 7. However, for a course which has lots of lectures and spoken instructions, a score of 5 in Listening might be unacceptable even though the Overall Band Score was 7.
Once you have marked your tests, you should have some idea of whether your listening and reading skills are good enough for you to try the eyeelts test. If you did well enough in one component, but not in others, you will have to decide for yourself whether you are ready to take the test.
The practice tests have been checked to ensure that they are the same level of difficulty as the real eyeelts test. However, we cannot guarantee that your score in the practice tests will be reflected in the real eyeelts test. The practice tests can only give you an idea of your possible future performance and it is ultimately up to you to make decisions based on your score.
Different institutions accept different eyeelts scores for different types of courses. We have based our recommendations on the average scores which the majority of institutions accept. The institution to which you are applying may, of course, require a higher or lower score than most other institutions.
Part 1 Questions 1 to 10
Complete the notes below.
Write one word and or A number for each answer.
Table summary: A transport survey for Sadie Jones, born in 1991 with postcode 1. Regarding bus travel, she traveled on date 2 for shopping and a visit to the 3, choosing the bus because the cost of 4 was too high. She boarded at 5 Street and complained that the bus today was 6 and noted the frequency of buses in the 7. For other transport, she goes to the 8 by car, dislikes cycling in the city centre due to the 9, and does not own a bike because of a lack of 10.
Questions 11 to 13
Becoming a Volunteer for ace
11 Why does the speaker apologise about the seats?
A They are too small.
B There are not enough of them.
C Some of them are very close together.
12 What does the speaker say about the age of volunteers?
- A The age of volunteers is less important than other factors.
- B Young volunteers are less reliable than older ones.
- C Most volunteers are about 60 years old.
13 What does the speaker say about training?
- A It is continuous.
- B It is conducted by a manager.
- C It takes place online.
Questions 14 and 15
Choose Two Letters, A-E.
Which two issues does the speaker ask the audience to consider before they apply to be volunteers?
- A their financial situation
- B their level of commitment
- C their work experience
- D their ambition
- E their availability
Questions 16 to 20
What does the speaker suggest would be helpful for each of the following areas of voluntary work?
Choose five answers from the box and write the correct letter, A–G, next to Questions 16 to 20.
Helpful things volunteers might offer
A experience on stage
B original, new ideas
C parenting skills
D an understanding of food and diet
E retail experience
F a good memory
G a good level of fitness
Area of voluntary work
16 Fundraising
17 Litter collection _ _
18 'Playmates'
19 Story club
20 First aid _ _ Questions 21 to 26
Talk on jobs in fashion design
21 What problem did Chantal have at the start of the talk?
A Her view of the speaker was blocked. B She was unable to find an empty seat. C The students next to her were talking.
22 What were Hugo and Chantal surprised to hear about the job market?
- A It has become more competitive than it used to be. B There is more variety in it than they had realised. C Some areas of it are more exciting than others.
23 Hugo and Chantal agree that the speaker's message was
- A unfair to them at times.
- B hard for them to follow.
- C critical of the industry.
24 What do Hugo and Chantal criticise about their school careers advice?
- A when they received the advice
- B how much advice was given
- C who gave the advice
25 When discussing their future, Hugo and Chantal disagree on
A which is the best career in fashion.
B when to choose a career in fashion.
C why they would like a career in fashion.
26 How does Hugo feel about being an unpaid assistant?
A He is realistic about the practice. B He feels the practice is dishonest. C He thinks others want to change the practice.
Questions 27 and 28
Choose two letters, A-E.
Which two Mistakes Did the Speaker Admit She Made in Her First Job?
- A being dishonest to her employer
- B paying too much attention to how she looked
- C expecting to become well known
- D trying to earn a lot of money
- E openly disliking her client
Questions 29 and 30
Choose Two Letters, A-E.
Which two pieces of retail information do Hugo and Chantal agree would be useful?
- A the reasons people return fashion items
- B how much time people have to shop for clothes
- C fashion designs people want but can't find
- D the best time of year for fashion buying
- E the most popular fashion sizes
Elephant translocation
Reasons for overpopulation at Majete National Park strict enforcement of anti-poaching laws
• successful breeding
Problems caused by elephant overpopulation
- greater competition, causing hunger for elephants
- damage to 31 _ _ in the park
The translocation process
- a suitable group of elephants from the same 32 was selected
• vets and park staff made use of 33 ..... to help guide the elephants into an open plain
- elephants were immobilised with tranquilisers
- – this process had to be completed quickly to reduce 34
- – elephants had to be turned on their 35.....to avoid damage to their lungs
- – elephants' 36 had to be monitored constantly
- – tracking devices were fitted to the matriarchs
- – data including the size of their tusks and 37 was taken
- elephants were taken by truck to their new reserve
Advantages of translocation at Nkhotakota Wildlife Park
38 _ _ opportunities
- a reduction in the number of poachers and 39 _ _
- an example of conservation that other parks can follow
- an increase in 40 _ _ as a contributor to G.D.P
What to do if your clothes have been lost or damaged by a dry cleaner
Dry cleaners are legally required to take reasonable care of anything left with them. You can claim compensation if your belongings are damaged or lost while in their care.
Even if the dry cleaning company has a sign saying they aren't responsible for items left with them, this isn't necessarily true. They can't opt out of this responsibility just by putting up a sign.
As soon as you realise there's a problem, contact them and explain the situation. They might offer you compensation straight away. If they don't, you should ask them to either cover the cost of repairing the item or to pay for a replacement (if it can't be repaired).
If they have to pay the cost of replacing a damaged or lost item, the maximum they're obliged to offer you is the value of the item when it was left with them, not what it would cost to replace as new. You'll probably be asked to provide evidence of how much it originally cost – for example, a receipt. The dry cleaner can then offer you a reduced amount depending on the condition of the item – you'll have to negotiate the cost with them.
If the dry cleaner is part of a national chain, you could get in touch with the customer services department of their head office and make the complaint to them directly.
If the dry cleaner refuses to compensate you or they offer you too little, try the following steps:
- If the dry cleaner is a member of a trade association such as the U.K Fashion and Textile Association, you can pass your complaint to them and they may be able to help you.
• You could get an independent organisation to look at your issue and produce a report, but this could be expensive (often around £100).
If you've tried the options above and are still unhappy with the outcome, you could take your case to court. There's a time limit for going to court – from when you took the item to the dry cleaner, you have up to six years.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page 16?
In boxes 1 to 7 on your answer sheet, write
Table summary: Guidelines for identifying statements based on provided information. Use TRUE if the statement agrees with the information, FALSE if it contradicts the information, and NOT GIVEN if there is no information available.
1 Dry cleaners are generally responsible for items left with them, even if there's a sign saying the opposite.
2 If the dry cleaner loses an item belonging to you, they should give you enough money to buy a completely new one.
3 If you have the receipt for a damaged item, the company should refund the amount you originally paid for it.
4 It may be possible to get support for your complaint from a dry cleaners' trade association.
5 If you're offered too little compensation, you can request a free report from an independent organisation.
6 Most people who take a case about a dry-cleaning company to court are satisfied with the outcome.
7 If an item was lost or damaged nine months ago, you can still take the dry cleaner to court.
A Teenvision
Groups for readers and writers
This is a reading group for teens aged 12 to 16 which meets on the last Thursday of the month. We are a friendly group, with everybody keen to talk about what we've enjoyed reading recently and make suggestions on what we should read next. We are massive fans of action, fantasy and adventure but we try to include a mix of genres in our choices.
B Creative writing workshops
Would you like to share your writing with others and hear their constructive suggestions for how to improve it? Have you got a book inside you but need the inspiration to get started? Build your confidence to begin formulating ideas for storylines and characters at our regular workshops. Open to all – beginners and established writers.
C Books for now
We meet on the second and fourth Mondays of each month in members' homes. The group is open to men and women who enjoy discussing the themes and issues found in science fiction novels. Our books are usually those written from the 1960s onwards and include feminist science fiction, cyberpunk and scientific romance.
D Readers' book group
This is an open group for parents at the library, and toddlers are welcome to come along and play in the children's library while the meeting is taking place. The group reads mainly fiction of different genres. Books are supplied by the library. Anyone is welcome – have a look at our website to see what the book is for the next meeting.
E The book club
Every month members of this group read a fabulous business book which is then discussed when we meet. At our meetings you'll have the chance to network with other members – all like-minded businesswomen – in a relaxed environment. There will be lots of ideas to discuss, as well as refreshments and lots of fun!
F Poetry writing group
A writing group for young poets aged between 12 and 18 at the library. You will explore how to power up your imagination, and your poems will be displayed in the library and online. The group meets fortnightly on Saturdays from 12 p.m. to 2 p.m. The group is currently full but anyone interested is welcome to join the membership waiting list.
The text on page 18 has six paragraphs, A–F.
Which paragraph mentions the following?
Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 8 to 14 on your answer sheet.
N.B You may use any letter more than once.
8 Members of this group share ideas for the books they would like to read.
9 It isn't possible for any new members to join this group at present.
10 You can get feedback on your own work from other members of this group.
11 This group focuses on stories belonging to just one genre.
12 Work produced by members of this group will be available to the public.
13 This group doesn't read or write either poetry or fiction.
14 This group would suit someone who thinks they could write a book.
Read the text below and answer Questions 15 to 22.
Mechanical lifting equipment
If some simple precautions are taken, lifting equipment that is essential for construction and engineering projects can be used safely. Forklift trucks, lifting trolleys, mobile and fixed cranes and all their parts are classed as lifting equipment.
All equipment used for lifting or moving heavy loads should be properly constructed. For example, equipment bearing a C.E mark has been constructed to international standards. In addition, equipment that meets these standards will have documented instructions for tests that should be adhered to prior to using the equipment. Certain types of machinery, such as cranes, must be inspected by a qualified engineer on a six-monthly basis.
For operations that use cranes, a formal lift plan must be prepared. Lift plans are a type of risk assessment, whereby the possible dangers of the operation are carefully calculated, and control measures are identified and put in place. Before any lift proceeds, the plan should be talked over with the lifting crew during what is often referred to as a 'Tool Box Talk' T.B.T. This is an important opportunity for them to ask questions about their role in the operation.
When heavy loads are being moved around, there are some practical things that should be done to prevent accidents. Firstly, if a load needs to be moved where workers or members of the public are present, the area must have barriers or other means to ensure no one is allowed to walk under the load while it is moving. Secondly, someone called a banksman should always be used when moving heavy loads by crane. As a crane driver often cannot see the load, especially during touch-down, this person tells him or her which way to move it.
It is very unusual for machinery such as cranes to fail. However, it is all too easy to ignore the importance of the secondary equipment. This refers to those items that are attached between the mechanical lifting machine and the load that is being lifted. Chains, slings, shackles and rigging are all examples of secondary lifting equipment, and it is perhaps surprising to note that most injuries occur due to faults or weaknesses in these items. It is essential that a six-monthly visual inspection is carried out to ensure there are no signs of wear or damage to the slings and shackles.
Questions 15 to 22
Choose no more than two words from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15 to 22 on your answer sheet.
Lifting equipment
• must be manufactured well, for example, have a 15 _ _ on it
may need to undergo 16 before use
may need a regular check by an 17
Lift plans
- relevant to cranes
- used to establish and carry out 18 _ _ for any risks
- a 19 can be consulted during a 'Tool Box Talk'
Preventing accidents with heavy loads
- use objects such as 20 ..... to make sure the load doesn't pass over anyone's head
- appoint a 21 _ _ to give verbal directions to the crane driver
Secondary lifting equipment (chains, slings, etcetera)
- more likely to cause 22 _ _
Read the text below and answer Questions 23 to 27.
Dealing with customer complaints
When a customer complains, it is usually for a good reason. Here are some strategies that will help you handle a customer complaint in a smooth and professional manner.
When a customer presents you with a complaint, keep in mind that the issue is not personal. Aiming to win the confrontation accomplishes nothing. He or she has usually made a purchase that did not meet their expectations – a product, service, or maybe a combination of the two. A worker who remains in control of their emotions deals from a position of strength.
Let the customer say what they need to. Respond with phrases such as, 'Hmm', 'I see', and 'Tell me more'. Then be quiet. As the customer expresses their annoyance yet sees you are not reacting, he or she will begin to relax. The customer needs to do this before being able to hear your solution.
When the customer has calmed down and feels you have heard his or her side, start asking questions. Be careful not to give scripted replies but use this as an opportunity to start a genuine conversation, building a relationship of trust with your customer. To help you understand the situation, get as many details as possible.
Take charge of the situation and let the customer know what you are going to do to solve the problem. One thing to keep in mind is that you should know what you can and cannot do within the policy of the business you work for. The cost could be minimal – maybe a simple upgrade on the customer's next purchase or a small gift certificate. A simple gesture like this could result in a word-of-mouth recommendation to others, while making a promise you cannot commit to will only set you back.
Questions 23 to 27
Choose one word only from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 23 to 27 on your answer sheet.
Table summary: Strategies for dealing with customer complaints, outlining four approaches and their corresponding effects on the customer. When staying calm, remember it is not a direct attack and do not try to 23 the argument, as the customer usually had 24 that were not fulfilled. When listening well, use short phrases in reply, noting the customer cannot recognise a 25 until calm. Getting the facts involves asking questions and beginning a proper conversation, which helps the customer start to trust you. Finally, when suggesting action, be sure of your company’s 26 on complaints, which may lead the customer to make a verbal 27 in future.
Read the text on pages 25 and 26 and answer Questions 28 to 40.
Questions 28 to 33
The text on pages 25 and 26 has six sections, A-F.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i-8, in boxes 28 to 33 on your answer sheet.
Table summary: A list of eight headings, ranging from i to viii. These headings cover themes related to storks, including their role as a sign of hope in difficult times, their ability to inspire emotions and actions, and their capacity to cause delight and revive public events. Other headings address organizational support, public opposition, the discovery of new habitats, and an enterprise based on success in other countries.
28 Section A
29 Section B
30 Section C
31 Section D
White storks back in Britain after hundreds of years
These beautiful birds could be about to become a feature of the British landscape again
A The last definitive record of a pair of white storks successfully breeding in Britain was in 1416, from a nest on St Giles Cathedral in Edinburgh. No one knows why storks disappeared from our shores. They often featured on the menus of medieval banquets so we might, quite simply, have consumed them all. But there could be a more ominous reason.
Storks are migrants arriving after the end of winter, nesting on rooftops and happily associating with humans, and because of this they have long been a symbol of hope and new life. Yet their association with rebirth also meant they became a symbol of rebellion. Shortly after the restoration of King Charles 2 in 1660, while storks were rare but surviving, parliament debated putting greater effort into destroying them entirely for fear they might inspire republicanism. Today, fortunately, that notion has disappeared and the stork retains its association with new life, appearing on cards given to celebrate the arrival of a new child, as a bird carrying a baby in a sling held in its beak.
B So, after such a long absence, there was great excitement when in April of this year a pair of white storks built an untidy nest of sticks in the top branches of a huge oak in the middle of our rewilding project at Knepp Estate in West Sussex. Drone footage, taken before the pair started sitting on them, showed three large eggs. The fact that they were infertile and did not hatch was not too disappointing. The pair are only four years old, and storks can live to over thirty, with their first attempts to breed often failing.
Prospects for next year are encouraging. These young storks are part of a project to return the species to Britain, inspired by reintroductions in European countries that more than reached their target. Imported from Poland, they have spent the best part of three years in a six-acre pen with a group of other juveniles and several injured, non-flying adults, also from Poland. Other birds have already shown strong loyalty to the site.
Two years ago, a young bird from Knepp flew across the Channel to France and, this summer, returned to its companions.
C In the face of reports of unrelenting ecological loss (the U.N estimates a million species are on the brink of extinction globally), the white stork's return is refreshing news. As tens of thousands of people demonstrate about the growing climate crisis and eco-anxiety besets us, these glimpses of restoration are important. Featuring the storks in B.B.C television's Springwatch in June, the ecologist Chris Packham described the project as 'imaginative, intelligent, progressive and practical'.
D And yet its path to restoration in the U.K has not been smooth. Support from conservation bodies has been surprisingly difficult to obtain; some were hard-pressed with their own initiatives, while others were simply reluctant to stick their necks out. In addition, the committee of the Sussex Wildlife Trust raised doubts about the stork ever having been a British bird. They also had concerns that English-bred birds would migrate across the Channel, and feared that their messy nests and closeness to humans would cause a hazard – rubbish falling down people's chimneys.
So how has the reintroduction project managed to get going? What makes it in some ways special is that it has had to rely on private individuals actually building the introduction pens themselves and feeding the birds at their own expense. The expertise of tiny yet determined conservation charities such as the Roy Dennis Wildlife Foundation – responsible for the successful reintroductions of ospreys and white-tailed eagles to Britain – has been very welcome. And the support of Cotswold Wildlife Park, which quarantined the original Polish birds and continues to manage and cover the costs of the captive-breeding programme using its own well-trained staff and excellent facilities, has proved invaluable.
E Across Europe, as stork populations have suffered from the draining of wetlands and disappearance of insect-rich pastures and meadows, their loss has been felt deeply. A few years ago, a tearful old woman in a village in Belarus showed me the nest on her roof, empty of storks for the first time in living memory. Where storks have been reintroduced, they are greeted with great happiness and some historical stork festivals have been restored.
The Spanish erect poles for nests along their motorways, and in Alsace householders install cartwheels for storks to build nests on their roofs. During a cold snap in Bulgaria last March, villagers even gave white storks access to their homes.
F A driving motivation behind the project in the U.K is the aspiration that the storks' return will spark feelings of empathy and affection from townspeople who see their nests on rooftops. They might also encourage the public to feel worried about the wider area where they fly off to feed on earthworms, grasshoppers and frogs. White storks could be that charismatic species that connects urban communities directly with landscape restoration. Certainly, people once loved them here.
The name of our local village, Storrington, was originally 'Estorcheton' or 'home of the storks'. The public response has been overwhelming, with crowds coming to see white storks flying free in England for the first time in hundreds of years, and private landowners queueing up to offer more introduction sites.
The flight of the white stork over Britain is the triumph of practical action over bureaucracy, self-interest and negativity.
Choose one word only from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 34 to 37 on your answer sheet.
Project to reintroduce white storks at Knepp Estate
Last spring, two white storks were observed nesting at Knepp Estate, putting 34 together high up in a large oak tree. The female laid three eggs, which unfortunately proved to be 35. However, this was not surprising for such young storks. Naturalists believe they are likely to breed successfully in the future.
These two storks were bred in 36 ..... and, after arriving in the U.K, were kept for several years together with a few fully mature storks and some fellow juveniles before being released at Knepp. It appears that other storks are developing a sense of 37 ..... to their new home. One left Knepp for a year, only to fly back to be with the group again.
Questions 38 to 40
Write the correct letter in boxes 38 to 40 on your answer sheet.
38 In Section A, we learn that in the past people thought white storks
A represented the deep snow and cold days of winter.
B had the power to ensure that babies were born safely.
C were a speciality that only the very rich were allowed to eat.
D might be used to encourage people to get rid of the monarchy.
39 The Sussex Wildlife Trust committee was unwilling to support the storks because
A it thought there might not be any safe breeding places locally.
B it worried whether they would survive in Britain long enough.
C it was unsure that they were actually a native species.
D it had too many other worthy projects to support.
40 What has been one effect of stork reintroductions in Europe?
A a variety of measures have been taken to create nesting sites.
B Changes have been made to the routes of some major roads.
C Special shelters have been made to protect the birds in bad weather.
D Some people have strengthened their roofs to support the birds' weight.
Writing Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
Your English-speaking friend has asked for your help with a college project he/she is doing about celebrating New Year in different countries.
Write a letter to your friend. In your letter
• say how important New Year is to people in your country
• describe how New Year is celebrated in your country
- explain what you like about New Year celebrations in your country
Write at least 150 words.
Dear _ _ You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:
Some people say that it is better to work for a large company than a small one.
Do you agree or disagree?
Example
Paying bills
• What kinds of bills do you have to pay?
How do you usually pay your bills – in cash or by another method? [Why?]
Have you ever forgotten to pay a bill? [Why/Why not?]
• Is there anything you could do to make your bills cheaper? [Why/Why not?]
Part 2
Describe some food or drink that you learned to prepare. You should say: what food or drink you learned to prepare when and where you learned to prepare this how you learned to prepare this and explain how you felt about learning to prepare this food or drink.
Part 3
Discussion topics:
Young people and cooking
Example questions:
You will have to talk about the topic for one to two minutes. You have one minute to think about what you are going to say. You can make some notes to help you if you wish.
- Example questions: What kinds of things can children learn to cook? Do you think it is important for children to learn to cook? Do you think young people should learn to cook at home or at school?
Working as a chef
- Example questions: How enjoyable do you think it would be to work as a professional chef? What skills does a person need to be a great chef? How much influence do celebrity T.V chefs have on what ordinary people cook?
Part 1 Questions 1 to 10
Questions 1 to 5
Complete the notes below.
Write one word only for each answer.
Benefits
Working at Milo's Restaurants
• 1 provided for all staff
• 2 ___ _ during weekdays at all Milo's Restaurants
• 3 provided after midnight
Person specification
- must be prepared to work well in a team
- must care about maintaining a high standard of 4.....
• must have a qualification in 5 _ _
Questions 6 to 10
Complete the table below.
Table summary: Job opportunities at two locations. A Breakfast supervisor at 6 Street is responsible for checking portions and cleanliness, with a starting hourly pay of 8 pounds and a 5.30 a.m. start time. A Junior chef at City Road supports senior chefs and manages stock, earning an annual salary of 23,000 pounds with one day off per month.
Choose two letters, A-E.
What are the two main reasons why this site has been chosen for the housing development?
- A It has suitable geographical features.
- B There is easy access to local facilities.
- C It has good connections with the airport.
- D The land is of little agricultural value.
- E It will be convenient for workers.
Questions 13 and 14
Choose two letters, A-E.
Which two aspects of the planned housing development have people given positive feedback about?
- A the facilities for cyclists
- B the impact on the environment
- C the encouragement of good relations between residents
- D the low cost of all the accommodation
- E the rural location
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A–I, next to Questions 15 to 20.
Image summary: A map of a residential development featuring a network of housing blocks arranged in grids and curved rows, centered around a lake. The area is bounded by London Road to the west and a Main Road to the south, with access via a West Entrance and a South Entrance. The layout organizes various housing types, including apartment blocks and housing for the elderly, around a central water feature and road system.
15 School
16 Sports centre
17 Clinic
18 Community centre
19 Supermarket
20 Playground Questions 21 to 24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 Why do the students think the Laki eruption of 1783 is so important?
A It was the most severe eruption in modern times.
B It led to the formal study of volcanoes.
C It had a profound effect on society.
22 What surprised Adam about observations made at the time?
A the number of places producing them
B the contradictions in them
C the lack of scientific data to support them
23 According to Michelle, what did the contemporary sources say about the Laki haze?
A People thought it was similar to ordinary fog.
B It was associated with health issues.
C It completely blocked out the sun for weeks.
24 Adam corrects Michelle when she claims that Benjamin Franklin
A came to the wrong conclusion about the cause of the haze.
B was the first to identify the reason for the haze.
C supported the opinions of other observers about the haze.
Questions 25 and 26
Choose two letters, A-E.
Which two issues following the Laki eruption surprised the students?
A how widespread the effects were
B how long-lasting the effects were
C the number of deaths it caused
D the speed at which the volcanic ash cloud spread
E how people ignored the warning signs
Questions 27 to 30
What comment do the students make about the impact of the Laki eruption on the following countries?
Choose four answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 27 to 30.
Countries
Comments
A This country suffered the most severe loss of life.
B The impact on agriculture was predictable.
C There was a significant increase in deaths of young people.
D Animals suffered from a sickness.
E This country saw the highest rise in food prices in the world.
F It caused a particularly harsh winter.
27 Iceland
28 Egypt
29 U.K
30 U.S.A
Reason for choice of subject
Pockets
• They are 31 but can be overlooked by consumers and designers.
Pockets in men's clothes
• Men started to wear 32 _ _ in the 18th century.
• A 33 ..... sewed pockets into the lining of the garments.
- The wearer could use the pockets for small items.
- Bigger pockets might be made for men who belonged to a certain type of 34 .....
Pockets in women's clothes
- Women's pockets were less 35 than men's.
• Women were very concerned about pickpockets.
• Pockets were produced in pairs using 36 ..... to link them together.
• Pockets hung from the women's 37 _ _ under skirts and petticoats.
- Items such as 38 could be reached through a gap in the material.
• Pockets, of various sizes, stayed inside clothing for many decades.
- When dresses changed shape, hidden pockets had a negative effect on the 39 _ _ of women.
- Bags called 'pouches' became popular, before women carried a 40 .....
Read the text below and answer Questions 1 to 8.
Choosing the best sleeping bag
When choosing a sleeping bag, check what seasons it's for, as well as how heavy it is if you're backpacking. Also think about the filling. Natural duck down is very warm, has a longer lifespan and is easier to pack up, while synthetic materials are easier to clean, and they dry quicker and are cheaper.
A Vango Fuse -12
This all-year-round sleeping bag combines natural duck down and a new synthetic fibre. The result is a bag that's warm and weighs 1.5 kilograms. There's a water-resistant finish to protect it from moisture.
B Outwell Campion Lux Double Sleeping Bag
This double sleeping bag – which is suitable for all seasons except winter – is soft and cosy, and there's a handy pocket for essentials, located inside near the top. It also folds up remarkably small, given its size.
C Nordisk Oscar +10
At just 350g, this sleeping bag is remarkably light, and as it's synthetic, it's very easy to maintain. The pack size is just 13 times 20 centimeters, which makes it ideal for backpacking. It will work perfectly for summer trekking.
D The Big Sleep 250 G.S.M Single Cowl Sleeping
If you want a no-frills, budget sleeping bag that will last more than one summer, opt for this. It's soft, comfy and simple to wash. Give yourself a bit of time to fit it back in the bag, though. Use it for spring, summer and autumn.
E Jack Wolfskin Smoozip +3
We like the extra insulation in this sleeping bag around the areas that tend to feel the cold (head, chest and feet). And the hood is cosy enough to use as a pillow.
F Vango Starwalker Dragon
This innovative, high-quality kids' sleeping bag enables you to undo some zips and turn it into a fun, animal-themed coat. Once your youngster is ready for bed, simply zip the bottom back on and zip up the shoulders. Suitable for between 8 and 20 degrees Celsius.
G Outwell Conqueror
This sleeping bag has an integrated down duvet and lots of space. What's more, it packs up compactly and is easy to get back in the bag. It's light but too big for a rucksack.
Questions 1 to 8
Look at the seven reviews of sleeping bags, A-G, on pages 39 and 40.
For which sleeping bag are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A–G, in boxes 1 to 8 on your answer sheet.
N.B You may use any letter more than once.
1 This sleeping bag is not very easy to pack up.
2 People can use this sleeping bag in any season.
3 This sleeping bag has been designed to ensure certain parts of the body are warm.
4 This sleeping bag contains a useful storage area.
5 People who do not want to spend much on a sleeping bag will find this one suits their needs.
6 This sleeping bag can also keep the user warm during the daytime.
7 People who wish to avoid carrying heavy weights should try this sleeping bag.
8 This sleeping bag contains two different types of material.
Read the text below and answer Questions 9 to 14.
The Spread the Word Life Writing Prize
We are delighted to announce The Spread the Word Life Writing Prize in association with Goldsmiths Writers' Centre.
Competition Rules
Entries should be original works of life writing of no more than 5,000 words. The word count will be checked and entries longer than 5,000 words will be disqualified. There is no minimum word count.
For the purposes of the Prize, Life Writing is defined as non-fiction and should be based on a significant portion from the author's own experience. Traditional biographies, where the piece is only about the experience of someone else, are excluded.
Writers only submit one entry each. Multiple entries by the same author will result in only the first entry being considered for the Prize and any additional entries disqualified. Writers who have previously won or been highly commended in the Life Writing Prize are excluded from entering; otherwise, previous entrants may submit.
Entries must be the original, previously unpublished work of the entrant. Graphic novel-style entries, where drawings or photographs accompany text, are welcome. Entries can be self-contained pieces of life writing, or the first 5,000 words of a longer piece of work.
The Life Writing Prize is open to writers aged over 18 and resident in the U.K who are emerging writers, which means they have not previously published in print a full-length work. We define a full-length work as, for example, a complete work of fiction or non-fiction over 30,000 words.
Entries that are simultaneously submitted elsewhere are welcome – but please let us know as soon as possible if a piece is to be published elsewhere or has won another prize so we can disqualify it from the Life Writing Prize.
The winner will receive £1,500, publication on Spread the Word's website, two years' membership of the Royal Society of Literature, and a development meeting with an editor and an agent. Two highly commended entries will receive £500 and two mentoring sessions, a development meeting with an editor and an agent, and be published on the Spread the Word website.
Questions 9 to 14
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page 42?
In boxes 9 to 14 on your answer sheet, write
Table summary: Guidelines for determining if a statement matches provided information. Use TRUE if the statement agrees, FALSE if it contradicts, and NOT GIVEN if there is no information available.
9 Writers can submit an entry of fewer than 5,000 words for the Life Writing Prize.
10 Writers can choose to write about the life of a person they know.
11 People who have entered an earlier Life Writing competition without achieving any success may enter again.
12 Writers who are between 19 and 25 years old and in full-time education have won the prize in previous years.
13 Only one prize is awarded at the end of the Life Writing competition.
14 Previous winners of the Life Writing Prize have gone on to become successful published writers.
Benefits
Encouraging employees to be healthy: a guide for employers
Putting effort into employee wellness can reduce absenteeism and encourage better teamwork in the workplace, as well as increased productivity. Once you've devised a program, continue to assess the outcomes and regularly survey your team to gather feedback.
Focus on general prevention
Consider offering flu vaccinations on site and look at offering employees incentives on health insurance. Some companies arrange for someone who specialises in health issues, such as a doctor, to visit the workplace and speak to employees.
Encourage a healthier diet
Most of us know that eating healthily can help prevent future diseases, but many are not aware that unhealthy eating is linked to a 66 percent increased risk of loss of productivity. It may be necessary to consciously develop a healthy food and drink workplace policy, including a healthy catering policy. A simple thing to do is substitute soda in any on-site vending machines with water or juice. Also investigate the nutritional value of food supplied for team meetings and work events. Consider putting a bowl of fruit out in the staff room and urge everyone to help themselves for free. You can encourage employees to bring in healthy lunches from home by making sure that there is a fridge in the break room.
Encourage more exercise
Encouraging employees to exercise needn't be expensive as there are plenty of low-cost methods available. These might include: installing racks for bikes in your staff car park; encouraging employees to take part in fun runs and charity events; suggesting 'walking meetings' where people discuss business as they get fresh air and exercise; and putting in showers to assist those who ride or run to the workplace. Some companies negotiate group rates for their employees at a nearby gym.
Improve mental health
Recent reports have shown that ignoring mental health costs Australian companies at least $11 billion a year. We all have a responsibility to look out for one another. Some ways you can do this in the workplace include: running employee surveys to get valuable information on morale in the workplace; training managers on mental health strategies; offering rebates so employees are compensated for counselling if required; and refusing to accept any bullying and unprofessional behaviour in your workplace.
Write your answers in boxes 15 to 21 on your answer sheet.
Benefits
Encouraging employee health
• improved efficiency
less 15
Preventing problems
• invite guests, for example, a doctor, to give information
• provide vaccinations
Diet
• make healthier options available to replace 16
have healthy food at meetings
offer 17 ..... at no cost
• provide a 18 _ _ for staff use
Exercise
• provide somewhere for employees to leave their 19 _ _
• provide 20 _ _ for workers who exercise
Mental health
• give managers appropriate training
• find out how employees feel at work by using 21
do not tolerate bullying or other inappropriate behaviour
Marama Beach Hotel and Bistro: guidelines for working in the kitchen
The health and well-being of customers and staff is our first priority, and we expect all staff to take every step possible to maintain food safety and work in a hygienic manner.
Hygiene
• Long hair must be tied back and no rings may be worn if touching food.
- The regulation chefs' shirts and trousers are to be freshly laundered before starting a new shift, along with aprons if they are worn.
- Cross-contamination between raw and cooked food must be avoided. To this end, staff must use a clean board each time they cut different types of food.
- Staff should not touch money and then food without washing their hands in between.
- In the case of illness or a skin problem, the staff member should inform the manager. Cuts on hands and arms must be properly wrapped or bandaged.
Safety rules
• All injuries must be reported to management immediately.
- Safety guards must not be altered in any way, and staff must always wear protective clothing and gloves when working with sharp, hot, cold or corrosive items or materials.
- Loose clothing or jewellery must not be worn.
- Defective appliances must be turned off and not used – staff must not try to fix them themselves.
- Heavy boxes should be lifted carefully with bent knees and a straight back, holding the box close to the body.
• Work areas should be clean and free of hazards.
• Spills on the floor must be dealt with immediately.
- Flammable liquids must be stored away from flames.
- If storing containers of chemicals in the kitchen, they must have clear labels, so as to avoid any confusion about the contents.
Breaks
Staff have 20 minutes of paid break time per 3 hours of work, during which time they may not leave the premises. Every staff member who works a shift exceeding 5 hours is entitled to a 30-minute unpaid break and free meals. However, please be aware that the kitchen may not always be able to provide this service, especially in peak times. Beverages kept in the storeroom may not be consumed by staff, but filtered water is provided free of charge in the staff room.
Complete the sentences below.
Choose one word only from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 22 to 27 on your answer sheet.
22 Chefs' uniforms and must be washed for every shift.
23 Kitchen staff need to change the _ _ when they start chopping another kind of food.
24 All staff must make sure their hands are clean after handling .....
25 Workers in the kitchen should not attempt to repair .....
26 ..... are required to identify any chemicals kept in the kitchen.
27 It is forbidden for kitchen staff to have drinks from the _ _.
A home-sewing revival: the return of Clothkits
In the 1970s, Clothkits revolutionised home sewing. Later, a woman from Sussex, England, revived the nostalgic brand and brought it up to date.
A 'I can't remember many of the clothes I wore before I was six, but I have a vivid memory of a certain skirt whose patterns I can still trace in my mind. It was wraparound, with a belt that threaded through itself, decorated with cats in two shades of green. I wore it with a knitted red jersey my mum bought in a jumble sale, and brown sandals with flowers cut into the toes. It was 1979, and I was not yet five. I forgot about that skirt for a long time, but when a girlfriend mentioned the name Clothkits while we were chatting, it was as if a door suddenly opened on a moment in the past that resonated with vivid significance for me.' The brand, founded in 1968, had by the late 1980s mostly vanished from people's lives, but by a combination of determination and luck Kay Mawer brought it back.
B Clothkits was created by the designer Anne Kennedy, who came up with the ingenious idea of printing a pattern straight on to coloured fabric so that a paper pattern was not needed. It was accompanied by instructions that almost anyone could follow on how to cut the pieces out and sew them together. 'I was rebelling against the formulaic lines of textile design at that time,' Kennedy says. 'My interest was in folk art and clothes that were simple to make as I had lots of unfinished sewing disasters in my cupboard.' Clothkits has always embodied the spirit of the late 1960s and 1970s. Its initial design was a dress in a geometric stripe in orange, pink, turquoise and purple.
It cost 25 shillings (£1.25), and after it was featured in the Observer newspaper, Kennedy received more than £2,000 worth of orders. She ran the company from Lewes in Sussex, where at its peak it employed more than 400 people, selling to 44 countries worldwide. Sew-your-own kits formed the core of the business, supplemented by knitwear. Kennedy's children demonstrated the patterns by wearing them in photographs.
C Kennedy sold the company in the late 1980s. There had been a few administrative problems with postal strikes and a new computer system, which back then took up an entire room, 'but the times were changing as well,' she says. 'More women were going out to work and sewing less for their children.' She sold the company to one of her suppliers, who then sold it on to Freeman's, which ran Clothkits alongside its own brand for a while, using Kennedy's impressive database, but its ee-thoss as a big, corporate company did not sit well alongside the alternative and artistic values of Clothkits. In 1991, Clothkits was made dormant, and there the story might have ended, were it not for Mawer's fascination with discovering what happened to Clothkits.
D Mawer's mother bought her a sewing machine when she was ten and taught her basic pattern-cutting and garment construction, encouraging her to experiment with colour and design by trial and error. The first garment Mawer made a pair of trousers, which she made by tracing around an existing pair of trousers. In her late twenties, she spent five years working on digital and sculptural installations. 'It was an amazing, mind-expanding experience, but I knew it was unlikely I could make a living as a practising artist. I was definitely looking for a way that I could work in a creative industry with a commercial edge.' The experience inspired Mawer to return to education, studying for a degree in fine art at the University of Chichester. Her passion for vintage fabric, which her mother had encouraged her to start collecting, led her back to Clothkits, and from there to a journey into the heart of Freeman's. Negotiations with the company took 18 months, but in October 2007 Clothkits was hers.
The ee-thoss of Clothkits remains the same, and Mawer is proud that her fabric is printed either in London or the north of England, and that packaging is kept to an absolute minimum. 'I wanted to feel that everyone involved in the brand, from design to production, was part of a process I could witness. I couldn't see the point of manufacturing on the other side of the world, as that's not what Clothkits has ever been about.' The revival of Clothkits has also, of course, coincided with a growing sense of dissatisfaction at our disposable society, and the resulting resurgence of interest in skills such as sewing and knitting. 'Making your own clothes gives you a greater appreciation of the craftsmanship in the construction of a garment,' Mawer says. 'When you know the process involved in making a skirt, you treasure it in a way you wouldn't if you'd bought it from a mass-producing manufacturer.'
Questions 28 to 31
The text on pages 49 and 50 has five paragraphs, A–E.
Which paragraph mentions the following?
Write the correct letter, A–E, in boxes 28 to 31 on your answer sheet.
N.B You may use any letter more than once.
28 mention of Mawer's desire to oversee all the stages of her business
29 reference to changing employment patterns among the general population
30 the date when Clothkits was originally established as a product
31 the benefits of sewing a garment and then wearing it
Questions 32 to 35
Write the correct letter in boxes 32 to 35 on your answer sheet.
32 In Paragraph A, the writer says that Kay Mawer was reminded about Clothkits by
- A a shop she visited.
- B a purchase she made.
- C an outfit someone was wearing.
- D a conversation with someone she knew.
33 What does the reader learn about Clothkits in the 1960s and 1970s?
- A Its designs represented the attitudes of the time.
- B Its products were only affordable for the wealthy.
- C Its creator tried many times to launch her company.
- D Its management was spread across numerous countries.
34 Why did Clothkits close in 1991?
- A There were unexpected staffing problems.
- B The funding for sewing activities was inadequate.
- C Freeman's was an unsuitable partner.
- D Records on Kennedy's database were lost.
35 What point does the writer make in Paragraph E?
- A Clothkits will reach more markets than in the past.
- B Clothkits will need bigger premises than in the past.
- C People are more concerned about throwing away items than in the past.
- D People do less sewing now than in the past.
Questions 36 to 40
Choose one word only from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 36 to 40 on your answer sheet.
The early days of Clothkits
Clothkits was started by a designer named Anne Kennedy. Her clothing company specialised in selling 36 ..... with a pattern printed on it. This came with 37 ..... , which meant that buyers were able to make their own garments.
The very first garment Anne Kennedy made was a multi-coloured striped dress with a 38 pattern. A 39 article led to many orders for this from around the world. As the company grew, she increased her workforce, and also sold 40 as part of her business. She exhibited her designs using her children as models.
Writing Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You are soon going to spend three months doing work experience in an organisation.
Write a letter to the manager of the organisation where you are going to do work experience. In your letter
• thank the manager for the opportunity to do work experience
• explain what you hope to learn from the work experience
• ask some questions about the work experience you are going to do
Write at least 150 words.
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:
When we meet someone for the first time, we generally decide very quickly what kind of person we think they are and if we like them or not.
Is this a good thing or a bad thing?
The examiner asks you about yourself, your home, work or studies and other familiar topics.
Example
Science
• Did you like studying science when you were at school? [Why/Why not?]
• What do you remember about your science teachers at school?
• How interested are you in science now? [Why/Why not?]
• What do you think has been an important recent scientific development? [Why?]
Part 2
Describe a tourist attraction in your country that you would recommend. You should say: what the tourist attraction is where in your country this tourist attraction is what visitors can see and do at this tourist attraction and explain why you would recommend this tourist attraction.
Part 3
Discussion topics:
Museums and art galleries
Example questions:
You will have to talk about the topic for one to two minutes. You have one minute to think about what you are going to say. You can make some notes to help you if you wish.
What are the most popular museums and art galleries in ... / where you live? Do you believe that all museums and art galleries should be free? What kinds of things make a museum or art gallery an interesting place to visit?
The holiday industry
Why, do you think, do some people book package holidays rather than travelling independently?
Would you say that large numbers of tourists cause problems for local people? What sort of impact can large holiday resorts have on the environment?
Part 1 Questions 1 to 10
Questions 1 to 4
Complete the form below.
Write one word and or A number for each answer.
Table summary: A Wayside Camera Club membership form for Dan Green, who can be reached at dan1068@market.com and lives at 52 1 ..... Street, Peacetown. He heard about the club from a 2 ..... and is joining to enter competitions to 3 ....., opting for a 4 ..... membership costing 30 pounds.
Questions 5 to 10
Complete the table below.
Write no more than two words for each answer.
: Photography competitions and the feedback provided to Dan. For the competition titled 5‘, the feedback was that the picture's composition was not good. For 'Beautiful Sunsets', the feedback noted that the 7 was wrong. For the competition titled 8‘, the feedback stated that the photograph was too 10.
Choose two letters, A-E.
Which two warnings does Dan give about picking mushrooms?
- A Don't pick more than one variety of mushroom at a time.
- B Don't pick mushrooms near busy roads.
- C Don't eat mushrooms given to you.
- D Don't eat mushrooms while picking them.
- E Don't pick old mushrooms.
Questions 13 and 14
Choose two letters, A-E.
Which two ideas about wild mushrooms does Dan say are correct?
- A Mushrooms should always be peeled before eating.
- B Mushrooms eaten by animals may be unsafe.
- C Cooking destroys toxins in mushrooms.
- D Brightly coloured mushrooms can be edible.
- E All poisonous mushrooms have a bad smell.
15 What advice does Dan give about picking mushrooms in parks?
- A Choose wooded areas.
- B Don't disturb wildlife.
- C Get there early.
16 Dan says it is a good idea for beginners to
- A use a mushroom app.
- B join a group.
- C take a reference book.
17 What does Dan say is important for conservation?
- A selecting only fully grown mushrooms
- B picking a limited amount of mushrooms
- C avoiding areas where rare mushroom species grow
18 According to Dan, some varieties of wild mushrooms are in decline because there is
- A a huge demand for them from restaurants.
- B a lack of rain in this part of the country.
- C a rise in building developments locally.
19 Dan says that when storing mushrooms, people should
- A keep them in the fridge for no more than two days.
- B keep them in a brown bag in a dark room.
- C leave them for a period after washing them.
20 What does Dan say about trying new varieties of mushrooms?
- A Experiment with different recipes.
- B Expect some to have a strong taste.
- C Cook them for a long time.
Choose two letters, A-E.
Which two opinions about the Luddites do the students express?
- A Their actions were ineffective.
- B They are still influential today.
- C They have received unfair criticism.
- D They were proved right.
- E Their attitude is understandable.
Questions 23 and 24
Choose two letters, A-E.
Which two predictions about the future of work are the students doubtful about?
- A Work will be more rewarding.
- B Unemployment will fall.
- C People will want to delay retiring.
- D Working hours will be shorter.
- E People will change jobs more frequently.
Questions 25 to 30
What comment do the students make about each of the following jobs?
Choose six answers from the box and write the correct letter, A–G, next to Questions 25 to 30.
Jobs
Comments
A These jobs are likely to be at risk.
B Their role has become more interesting in recent years.
C The number of people working in this sector has fallen dramatically.
D This job will require more qualifications.
E Higher disposable income has led to a huge increase in jobs.
F There is likely to be a significant rise in demand for this service.
Both employment and productivity have risen.
25 Accountants
26 Hairdressers
27 Administrative staff
28 Agricultural workers
29 Care workers
30 Bank clerks
Space Traffic Management
A Space Traffic Management system
- is a concept similar to Air Traffic Control, but for satellites rather than planes.
- would aim to set up legal and 31 ways of improving safety.
- does not actually exist at present.
Problems in developing effective Space Traffic Management
• Satellites are now quite 32 ..... and therefore more widespread (e.g. there are constellations made up of 33 ..... of satellites).
- At present, satellites are not required to transmit information to help with their 34.
- There are few systems for 35 _ _ satellites.
- Small pieces of debris may be difficult to identify.
- Operators may be unwilling to share details of satellites used for 36 ..... or commercial reasons.
- It may be hard to collect details of the object's 37 at a given time.
• Scientists can only make a 38 about where the satellite will go.
Solutions
- Common standards should be agreed on for the presentation of information.
• The information should be combined in one 39 .....
- A coordinated system must be designed to create 40 in its users.
Manly Beaches
Next time you visit Manly, 30 minutes by ferry from the centre of Australia's biggest city, Sydney, try some of these less famous beaches
A Fairy Bower
Located in a marine protection area, the water is perfect for paddling, snorkelling or even scuba diving. There is a small gift shop for unusual souvenirs, and a kiosk that rents stand-up paddleboards. Buses do not stop nearby so a walk is necessary.
B North Steyne
This popular beach is a little further from the ferry than the main beach and it always feels less crowded. North Steyne has professional lifeguards on duty, but the surf can be hazardous so check conditions if swimming with young ones. If you want to try surfing for the first time, Manly Surf School operates out of the surf club located on the beach. Please note that boards are reserved for students and are not available for rent.
C Delwood
Delwood's secluded cove is a scenic walk from the ferry along the harbour walkway. There are no shops, so bring a picnic and have a peaceful swim off the rocks. You'll probably have the beach to yourself.
D Little Manly
This popular harbour beach has a net that encloses the swimming area. It is a good option for families as the protected area makes it easy to keep an eye on kids playing in the water. There is also a large playground, a public barbecue that anyone can use and toilet facilities, which make this a great spot for a family day out.
E East Esplanade
Located next to Manly Wharf, East Esplanade is a popular spot all day. There is no beach closer to the ferry or buses than this one. Kayakers meet for a paddle here as the sun rises, and daytrippers sit on the sand during the day. People get together on the grass after work, and bring drinks, snacks and music to watch the sun go down.
F Shelly Beach
This is the best spot if you don't like big waves. Rent a beach chair or head straight to the Boathouse Café, the perfect place for breakfast or lunch. Please note that Shelly Beach gets overly crowded at times, so avoid it on a sunny weekend afternoon.
Look at the six beach descriptions, A-F, on pages 63 and 64.
For which beaches are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A–F, in boxes 1 to 7 on your answer sheet.
N.B You may use any letter more than once.
1 You can buy food at this beach.
2 You can learn to do a sport at this beach.
3 This beach can be uncomfortably busy.
4 Adults can supervise their children without much difficulty at this beach.
5 This beach is nearest to public transport.
6 People are employed to supervise swimmers at this beach.
7 You can hire sports equipment at this beach.
Sydney Water: advice for customers paying a bill
About your bill
Sydney Water services over five million people in greater Sydney, and if you own a property, you'll get a bill from us. Generally, this is just for your water and wastewater services, but there could be other charges. We send most bills quarterly, after we've read the meter. If your property has no meter, we send the bill at the start of each quarter.
When do we send the bill?
If you'd like monthly bills, simply ask us to read your meter monthly. It costs $32.52 a quarter to be billed this way and this additional fee will appear on the first bill each quarter. To arrange it, just call us on 13 20 92.
What if you can't pay the bill?
We understand that it might be hard to pay your bill. If you're having difficulties, we have a range of options to help. If you receive a pension, we may give you a reduction on your bill, but you must own and live in your home to qualify for this.
How can you get your billing history?
• Register for eBill. When you register for Sydney Water's online billing facility, eBill, you'll be able to see your past bills at any time. Once you're registered, you'll stop getting paper bills and start getting electronic ones.
Still want paper bills? Simply cancel your registration after you have saved the electronic bills you need. Then you'll go back to paper bills, but you won't have access to the online bills after you cancel.
Contact us. Simply contact us and we'll give you a statement that shows the amounts we charged you and the payments we received on your last five bills.
• Need more history? If you need information that's older than your last five bills, you need to pay $28.04 for a 'billing record search statement'.
How do you stop a charge on a bill?
We'll stop a fixed charge on your bill if a licensed plumber cuts off your water or wastewater service. Your plumber must apply for this disconnection and follow Sydney Water's standard procedures.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page 66?
In boxes 8 to 14 on your answer sheet, write
true if the statement agrees with the information false if the statement contradicts the information not given if there is no information on this
8 All property owners receive Sydney Water bills.
9 Customers who don't have a water meter must pay an extra charge.
10 Customers who choose to receive a bill every month pay extra.
11 Pensioners who live in rented accommodation might get a discount.
12 Customers registered for eBill receive both paper and electronic bills.
13 Customers who request information from the period before their last five bills must pay a fee.
14 A fixed charge can be avoided when the water supply is disconnected by a licensed plumber.
Read the text below and answer Questions 15 to 20.
Company car parking policy
D.G Contracts recognises that many people working in the organisation require a vehicle for business purposes and aims to provide parking facilities for as many individuals as possible. However, car parking provision is limited. D.G Contracts therefore actively encourages staff to reduce their carbon footprint by using public transport, walking or cycling, or by organising ways of sharing the use of cars.
The car parking policy aims to allocate parking on a fair and equitable basis with spaces being given first to those employees who claim above a certain mileage of travel for business purposes. Individuals who are allocated a parking space will be issued with a parking permit and a number which corresponds to a car parking space. If there are any non-allocated car parking spaces, these can be utilised by employees on a first-come, first-served basis. In some cases, designated parking areas are required for company vehicles, which must be parked securely at night. However, employees may park in these areas in the daytime.
If any individual leaves the company prior to the expiry of their parking permit, this will be handed on to the member of staff who acts as their replacement, assuming that this person requires it. If any individual who has been issued a parking permit takes maternity leave or is signed off work for a lengthy period, their parking permit will be reallocated to the staff member appointed as cover for this individual during their absence.
Employees who park their cars in a D.G company car park do so at their own risk and must follow the rules laid down in the parking policy. If you have any complaints concerning any aspect of car parking at D.G company car parks, please address them to the H.R Manager.
Complete the sentences below.
Choose one word only from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15 to 20 on your answer sheet.
15 Parking is limited, so the use of alternative methods of transport and the _ _ of cars is encouraged.
16 Staff with the highest _ _ are given parking spaces first.
17 Some parking spaces are reserved for company vehicles during the _ _ but may be used by staff at other times.
18 If an employee leaves the company permanently, their parking space will normally be given to their _ _.
19 If an employee takes extended leave, their parking space will be given to the person who provides _ _ for the absent employee.
20 All _ _ about car parking should be sent to the H.R Manager.
Read the text below and answer Questions 21 to 27.
Ensuring safety in the office
It's fairly obvious that safety and health hazards can exist on worksites filled with heavy machinery and equipment. However, a surprising number of hazards can also be present in the office.
The most common types of injuries are slips, trips and falls. Boxes, files and other items piled in walkways can create a tripping hazard. Be certain that all materials are safely stored in their proper location to prevent build-up of clutter. Further, in addition to posing an electrical hazard, stretching wires across walkways creates a tripping hazard, so ensure they are properly secured and covered.
Standing on rolling office chairs is a significant fall hazard. Workers who need to reach something at an elevated height should use a stepladder, which must be fully opened and placed on level ground.
Workers can collide when making turns in the hallways and around blind corners. This can be prevented by installing mirrors in these places so workers can see who is coming. Floors may also present a hazard. Marble or tile can become very slippery, particularly when wet. The use of carpets can help to reduce falls and can be especially helpful at main doors, where workers are likely to be coming in with wet shoes.
Another type of injury comes from workers being struck by an object. Filing cabinets may be in danger of tipping over if drawers are left open, and filing cabinets and desks may also create a tripping hazard if they are not properly closed. High piles of materials and equipment can cause major injuries if they are knocked over. Heavy objects should always be stored close to the ground, and the load capacity of shelves should never be exceeded.
Because office workers spend most of their day seated at a desk, they are prone to strains and other injuries related to posture and repetitive movement. Desks, seating, monitor stands, etcetera should all be adjustable in order to accommodate the widest possible range of employees. Typing from hard copy can lead to neck strain if a worker is forced to look down repeatedly to the desk at the document being copied and back to the computer screen. This can be prevented by providing holders, which help to prevent muscle imbalance by positioning the document at the same level as the screen. Another cause of neck injuries is incorrect placement of the computer mouse – this should always be kept beside the keyboard, and at the same level.
Questions 21 to 27
Write your answers in boxes 21 to 27 on your answer sheet.
Making sure offices are safe
To prevent slips, trips, falls and collisions, ensure that
- boxes, files, etcetera are correctly stored
• items such as 21 do not create a tripping hazard
- workers do not use 22 ..... to reach high objects
• 23 are fixed at corners
• floors are covered by 24 _ _, especially at entrances
To prevent injuries caused by objects, ensure that
• 25 _ _ in office furniture are kept closed
- objects which are heavy are kept near the floor
To prevent injuries due to posture and repetitive movement, ensure that
• office furniture is 26
• 27 are provided for documents
- the mouse is placed next to the computer keyboard
Roman Roads
The long straight roads built by the Romans have, in many cases, become just as famous in history as their greatest emperors and generals. Building upon more ancient routes and creating a huge number of new ones, Roman engineers were fearless in their plans to join one point to another in as straight a line as possible, whatever the difficulties in geography and the costs in manpower. Consequently, roads required bridges, tunnels, viaducts and many other architectural and engineering features to create a series of breathtaking but highly useful monuments, which spread from Europe to eastern parts of the Roman empire.
The Romans did not invent roads, but, as in so many other areas, they took an idea which went back as far as the Bronze Age and extended that concept, daring to squeeze from it the fullest possible potential. The first and most famous great Roman road was the Via Appia, or Appian Way. Constructed from 312 B.C.E, and covering 196 kilometres, it linked Rome to ancient Capua in Italy in as straight a line as possible and was appropriately known to the Romans as the Regina Viarum or 'Queen of Roads'. Much like a modern highway, it bypassed small towns along the way, and it largely ignored geographical obstacles. The road would later be extended to 569 kilometres in length.
The network of public Roman roads covered over 120,000 kilometres. Besides permitting the rapid deployment of troops and, more importantly, the wheeled vehicles which supplied them with food and equipment, Roman roads allowed for an increase in trade and cultural exchange. Roads were also one of the ways Rome could demonstrate its authority. For this reason, many roads began and ended in a triumphal arch, and the imperial prestige associated with a road project was demonstrated in the fact that roads were very often named after the officials who funded them; for example, the Via Appia takes its name from the Roman magistrate Appius Claudius Caecus.
D To achieve the objective of constructing the shortest routes possible between two points, all manner of engineering difficulties had to be overcome. Once extensive surveying had been carried out, to ensure the proposed route was actually straight and to determine what various engineering methods were needed, marshes had to be drained, forests cut through, creeks diverted, bedrock channelled, mountainsides cut into, rivers crossed with bridges, valleys traversed with viaducts and tunnels built through mountains. When all that was done, roads had to be levelled, reinforced with support walls or terracing and then, of course, maintained, which they were for over 800 years.
E Major roads were around a standard 4.2 metres wide, which was enough space for two vehicles to pass each other. First a trench was dug in the earth, and a layer of large stones was used to form the foundation. This was followed by a substantial deposit of smaller broken materials – often crushed brick was used for this purpose, and on top of this, a layer of fine gravel was added. This upper section of the road was referred to as the nucleus and was then surfaced with blocks or slabs. Mountain roads might also have ridges running across the surface of the slabs, to give animals better grip, and have ruts cut into the stone to guide wheeled vehicles.
Roads were purposely inclined slightly from the centre down to the kerb to allow rainwater to run off along the sides. Many also had parallel ditches that collected the runoff and formed a drainage canal on each side of the road. A path of packed gravel for pedestrians typically ran along each side of the road, varying in width from 1 to 3 metres. Separating the path from the road were the kerb stones, which were regular upright slabs.
Busier stretches of main roads had areas where vehicles could pull over, and some of these had services for travellers and their animals. Milestones were also set up at regular intervals along the road and these often recorded who was responsible for the upkeep of that stretch of the road and what repairs had been made.
F Lasting symbols of the imagination of Roman engineers are the many arched bridges and viaducts still standing today that helped achieve the engineers' straight-line goal. The Romans built to last, and the piers of bridges which crossed rivers, for example, were often built with a resistant prow-shape and used massive durable blocks of stone, while the upper parts might be built of stone blocks strengthened with iron clamps. Perhaps the most impressive bridge was at Narni; 180 metres long, 8 metres wide and as high as 33 metres, it had 4 massive semicircular arches, one of which, stretching 32.1 metres, ranks as one of the longest block-arch spans in the ancient world. Recently hit by earthquakes, it is now having to undergo restoration work to repair the effects.
Such was the engineering and surveying skill of the Romans that many of their roads have provided the basis for hundreds of today's routes across Europe and the Middle East. Many roads in Italy still use the original Roman name for certain stretches, and some bridges, such as at Tre Ponti in Venice, still carry road traffic today.
Questions 28 to 33
The text on pages 72 and 73 has six sections, A-F.
Which section mentions the following?
Write the correct letter, A–F, in boxes 28 to 33 on your answer sheet.
N.B You may use any letter more than once.
28 the various functions of Roman roads
29 reference to some current remains of Roman road building
30 a description of preparations for building a road
31 the period in history when road building began
32 the consequence of damage caused by a natural disaster
33 the total distance once crossed by Roman roads Write the correct letter in boxes 34 to 37 on your answer sheet.
34 Which aspect of Roman road building does the writer mention in Section A?
A the strength and permanence of the roads
B the magnificence and practicality of the roads
C the number of people involved in building
D the powerful people who financed the roads
35 The writer compares the Appian Way to a modern highway because
A it was lengthened over time.
B it took a long time to construct.
C It was used by a large number of travellers.
D it was designed to avoid certain areas.
36 According to the writer, the purpose of the triumphal arches was to
A display the power of Rome.
B celebrate the opening of a road.
C show the name of important roads.
D provide access for important officials.
37 What common use of a milestone is mentioned in Section E?
A indicating to travellers the total length of the road
B highlighting areas of the road that needed repair
C noting details regarding the maintenance of the road
D marking rest places along the road for travellers and their animals Questions 38 to 40
Label the diagram below.
Choose no more than two words from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 38 to 40 on your answer sheet.
Image summary: A cross-section diagram of a Roman road showing its layered construction. The structure consists of a foundation of large stones, topped by a layer of materials, a central nucleus, and surface stone slabs with kerbs on the sides, all flanked by a ditch or drainage canal and a pedestrian pathway. The diagram illustrates how these specific layers and drainage features were engineered to create a durable and stable road.
Writing Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You recently bought some train tickets for a journey a week in advance. When you went to the station to catch the train, you were told you could not use the tickets and the staff were very unhelpful to you.
Write a letter to the train company. In your letter
• describe the problem you had with the tickets
• say why you were unhappy with the staff
• suggest what action the train company should take
Write at least 150 words.
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:
In the past, most working people had only one job. However, nowadays, more and more people have more than one job at the same time.
What are the reasons for this development?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of having more than one job?
Example
Online shopping
• How often do you buy things online? [Why?]
• What was the last thing you bought online?
- Do you ever see things in shops and then buy them online? [Why/Why not?]
- Do you think the popularity of online shopping is changing your town or city centre? [Why/Why not?]
Part 2
Table summary: A prompt for a speaking task asking to describe a time you enjoyed visiting a family member in their home. The response should specify who was visited and where they lived, the reason for the visit, what happened during the stay, and an explanation of why the visit was enjoyable.
Part 3
Discussion topics:
Family occasions
Example questions:
When do families celebrate together in your country?
You will have to talk about the topic for one to two minutes. You have one minute to think about what you are going to say. You can make some notes to help you if you wish.
How often do all the generations in a family come together in your country?
Why is it that some people might not enjoy attending family occasions?
Everyday life in families
Do you think it is a good thing for parents to help their children with schoolwork? How important do you think it is for families to eat together at least once a day? Do you believe that everyone in a family should share household tasks?
Part 1 Questions 1 to 10
Complete the notes below.
Write one word and or A number for each answer.
Job details from employment agency
Role 1
Location Fordham 2 Centre
3 Road, Fordham
Work involves dealing with enquiries
making 4.....and reorganising them
• maintaining the internal 5 .....
general administration
Requirements
• 6 _ _ (essential)
• a calm and 7 manner
• good I.T skills
Other information
• a 8 job – further opportunities may be available
• hours: 7.45 a.m. to 9 p.m. Monday to Friday
• 10 _ _ is available onsite
Questions 11 to 14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
11 The museum building was originally
A a factory.
B a private home.
C a hall of residence.
12 The university uses part of the museum building as
A teaching rooms.
B a research library.
C administration offices.
A Visitors decide whether or not they wish to pay.
B Only children and students receive a discount.
C The museum charges extra for special exhibitions.
14 What are visitors advised to leave in the cloakroom?
A cameras
B coats
C bags What information does the speaker give about each of the following areas of the museum?
Choose six answers from the box and write the correct letter, A–H, next to Questions 15 to 20.
Information
A Parents must supervise their children.
B There are new things to see.
C It is closed today.
D This is only for school groups.
E There is a quiz for visitors.
F It features something created by students.
G An expert is here today.
H There is a one-way system.
Areas of museum
15 Four Seasons
16 Farmhouse Kitchen
17 A Year on the Farm _ _
18 Wagon Walk
19 Bees are Magic
20 The Pond Choose two letters, A-E.
Which two educational skills were shown in the video of children doing origami?
A solving problems
B following instructions
C working cooperatively
D learning through play
E developing hand-eye coordination
Questions 23 to 27
Which comment do the students make about each of the following children in the video?
Choose five answers from the box and write the correct letter, A–G, next to Questions 23 to 27.
Children
Comments
A demonstrated independence
B asked for teacher support
C developed a competitive attitude
D seemed to find the activity calming
E seemed pleased with the results
F seemed confused
G seemed to find the activity easy
23 Sid _ _
24 Jack _ _
25 Naomi _ _
26 Anya _ _
27 Zara _ _
Questions 28 to 30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
28 Before starting an origami activity in class, the students think it is important for the teacher to
- A make models that demonstrate the different stages.
- B check children understand the terminology involved.
- C tell children not to worry if they find the activity difficult.
29 The students agree that some teachers might be unwilling to use origami in class because
- A they may not think that crafts are important.
- B they may not have the necessary skills.
- C they may worry that it will take up too much time.
30 Why do the students decide to use origami in their maths teaching practice?
- A to correct a particular misunderstanding
- B to set a challenge
- C to introduce a new concept
His novel, Les Misérables
Victor Hugo
- It has been adapted for theatre and cinema.
- We know more about its overall 31 than about its author.
His early career
• In Paris, his career was successful and he led the Romantic movement.
He spoke publicly about social issues, such as 32..... and education.
• Napoleon 3 disliked his views and exiled him.
His exile from France
• Victor Hugo had to live elsewhere in 33.
He used his income from the sale of some 34 he had written to buy a house on Guernsey.
His house on Guernsey
• Victor Hugo lived in this house until the end of the Empire in France.
- The ground floor contains portraits, 35..... and tapestries that he valued.
- He bought cheap 36 made of wood and turned this into beautiful wall carvings.
- The first floor consists of furnished areas with wallpaper and 37 that have a Chinese design.
- The library still contains many of his favourite books.
- He wrote in a room at the top of the house that had a view of the 38.
- He entertained other writers as well as poor 39 in his house.
• Victor Hugo's 40 ..... gave ownership of the house to the city of Paris in 1927.
The best ice cream makers
Have you ever considered making ice cream at home but thought it would be too complicated? Here is a selection of machines that could change your mind
A Magimix Gelato Expert
If you're an ice cream fanatic, it doesn't get better than this. It's quick, taking as little as 20 minutes, and consistent in its results, while the three automated programmes are very easy to use and it has an unusually generous two-litre capacity. On the other hand, we found it noisier than many, and the ice cream is softer than we might have liked.
B Shake n Make Ice Cream Maker
If you want to make some basic soft ice cream, this is a fun little gadget that gets decent results. You add a little ice and salt to the base, then your ingredients to the stainless-steel tub, pop the lid on and give it a good shake for at least three minutes. Provided you measure everything exactly and shake back and forth consistently, it's surprisingly efficient.
C Sage Smart Scoop
This is a seriously smart machine. Our favourite feature is the built-in sensor that works out whether the consistency of your ice cream or frozen yoghurt is right for you (from the 12 hardness settings) so that it can stop mixing when it's ready, alerting you with a fun tune. As you'd expect from the considerable price tag, there's a built-in freezer and it feels beautifully engineered.
D Lakeland Digital Ice Cream Maker
You simply pop on the lid and pour in the ingredients, then set the timer using the nice, clear digital display. Some customers reportedly struggled to disassemble it in order to wash the bowl and paddle, but we didn't have that problem. We're also giving it extra points for the recipe book, which has some really tasty ideas.
E Judge Ice Cream Maker
We had a few criticisms, perhaps not surprisingly when you consider this is one of the cheapest models in our selection – notably the fact that the paddle isn't as robust as the ones in other models. We'd have liked more recipes, too. But, for a budget machine, this is a bargain.
F KitchenAid Artisan Ice Cream Maker
If you own a KitchenAid food mixer, this attachment (one of 15 that fits this machine) is a good way to start ice cream making. You simply freeze the bowl before use and attach it to the mixer (a quick and easy job) and pour in your favourite fresh ingredients, with some recipes taking just 20 minutes.
Look at the six advertisements for ice cream makers, A-F, on pages 86 and 87.
For which ice cream maker are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A–F, in boxes 1 to 7 on your answer sheet.
N.B You may use any letter more than once.
1 Users of this machine will need to put some physical effort into making ice cream.
2 Users of this machine can decide how soft they want their ice cream to be.
3 This ice cream maker can be fixed onto an existing kitchen appliance.
4 It is possible to make a larger amount of ice cream at one time than in most other machines.
5 This machine has features that make it worth the high price.
6 People might find it difficult to take this machine apart.
7 This machine makes an enjoyable sound when the ice cream is prepared.
Photography weekend course on the coast of Cornwall
Our three-night photography weekend is designed to appeal to all levels. Participants will be able to enjoy some of the fantastic locations on this beautiful coastline, with its ever-changing light, while staying in a comfortable hotel and enjoying some typical dishes of this south-western region of Britain.
Price includes: Personal daily tuition, discussions, welcome reception, and dinner, bed and breakfast for three nights in a twin or double room.
Price does not include: Insurance and photographic equipment plus transport to photographic venues. Participants are required to arrange this. Car share during the weekend is a popular option.
Course information
- Our courses are relaxed but comprehensive, and the content is largely dictated by those attending. Included within the sessions are editing workshops at the hotel and photo shoots down by the sea. Visits further away are also undertaken to experiment with different landscapes.
- Arrival by mid-afternoon on the first day will allow you to check into the hotel and enjoy some Cornish refreshments before heading out into the fresh air for our first shoot together at sunset. Dinner and a good night's sleep and you'll be ready to start at sunrise the next day. In the evenings you will have a chance to unwind at the hotel, share your thoughts on the day and spend time looking at images and sharing editing techniques.
- Maximum numbers: Four photographers per course.
- The following equipment is essential: A digital S.L.R or bridge camera with its instruction manual, batteries and charger; memory cards; comfortable walking footwear with good grip; warm outdoor clothing and waterproofs.
- Recommended equipment: A tripod, filters, a laptop with editing software and charger.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page 89?
In boxes 8 to 14 on your answer sheet, write
: Definitions for a true, false, and not given classification system. TRUE is used if a statement agrees with the information, FALSE if it contradicts the information, and NOT GIVEN if there is no information available.
8 The course is aimed at people who are already skilled photographers.
9 Three meals a day are included in the course fee.
10 The only way to reach the hotel is by car.
11 The topics covered on the course depend mainly on the wishes of the participants.
12 Participants are expected to get up early on their first morning to take photographs.
13 The tutor will show participants examples of her work after dinner.
14 Participants should be prepared for bad weather.
Respiratory Protective Equipment – advice for factory employees
You need to wear Respiratory Protective Equipment R.P.E when you're doing work where you could breathe in hazardous substances in the air such as dust, vapour or gas. Common health effects from breathing hazardous substances include sore eyes and headaches. Make sure you are using the right R.P.E for the task. For example, negative pressure respirators should not be used in low oxygen environments.
Some types of R.P.E must have a tight seal around the facial area to be effective. Your employer will arrange a yearly facial fit test to ensure that you are given R.P.E that fits properly. This checks that the seal between the respirator and the facial area is secure, by releasing a substance that you can smell or taste if the R.P.E is not working properly. R.P.E will only provide effective protection if you are clean shaven.
Facial hair growth makes it almost impossible to get a good seal so, if you have a beard, you should talk to your employer about other forms of R.P.E that do not rely on a tight facial fit. Jewellery and long hair can also compromise an effective fit.
Using Your R.P.E
You should complete a visual check of your R.P.E for signs of damage before you use it. If you are using R.P.E that requires a tight fit, you must check it fits properly before entering a hazardous area.
Cleaning Your R.P.E
Wash and dry your R.P.E after using it. Use a mild detergent, as harsh products such as solvents can cause damage. Use a brush and warm water and rinse with clean water. This will remove excess detergent that can cause skin irritation. Dry your R.P.E on a solid wooden rack or suspend from a clothes line.
Maintaining Your R.P.E
Inspect your R.P.E after each use and during cleaning. Make sure you check the straps for breaks, tears, fraying edges and deterioration of elasticity. Check the inhalation and exhalation valves are working and not damaged.
Storing Your R.P.E
Improper storage can cause distortion to your R.P.E. Store your R.P.E in a clean, dry place, away from dust, oil and sunlight. R.P.E should be stored so that it doesn't get crushed.
Complete the sentences below.
Choose one word from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15 to 21 on your answer sheet.
15 Some respirators are unsuitable for use in areas with limited levels of .....
16 Facial fit tests should be conducted on a _ _ basis.
17 For workers who have a _ _, an alternative to tight-fitting R.P.E may be required.
18 Workers should avoid cleaning their R.P.E with _ _.
19 R.P.E can either be hung up or placed on a timber _ _ in order to dry it.
20 It is important to ensure that the R.P.E ..... are not ripped and can still stretch.
21 R.P.E should not be exposed to direct ..... when it is being stored.
Slips and trips
Working with cows in a dairy Guidelines for employers
Slips and trips are one of the most common accidents when working in farm dairies. They often happen when working with cows in a dairy during milking, and during maintenance and cleaning.
The following three hazards make it more likely that employees will slip or trip:
1. Surfaces which are wet or dirty
- Have a system for cleaning up milk, oil, cleaning fluid and grain spills as soon as they happen, and make sure it is followed.
- Install non-slip mats in wet work areas and make sure that footwear is slip-resistant.
2. Obstacles such as pipes or cables in the farm dairy
- Reduce tripping accidents by hanging hoses and pipes along walls out of people's way and remove unused fittings, like bolt fasteners in floors.
- Move obstacles from walkways and entrances where possible. Tripping hazards which cannot be removed should be clearly indicated with yellow tape. If there are obstacles overhead, these should be wrapped in padding to avoid risk of injury.
3. Steps which are too high or not deep enough, or steps in poorly lit areas
• Build steps properly and use non-slip surfaces.
• Handrails should also be fitted.
- The provision of good lighting can also help to reduce the risk of injury.
Lifting and carrying
The following tasks pose risks to dairy workers:
• lifting buckets of grain, water and milk
• lifting calves.
Managing the hazards
- Balance the load by using two buckets, one in each hand.
- Where possible, use trolleys and other mechanical aids to replace manual tasks.
Milking by hand
Specific tasks in milking which cause injury are:
• bending in an awkward position
- putting on and removing milking equipment from cows.
Managing the hazards
- Think about designing or changing the milking area so workers can change the height they are working at to suit them. Ensure that all equipment needed is close by to avoid workers having to overreach or adopt a bending position.
- Alternate between jobs to reduce repetitious manual handling tasks, including a rotation between putting on and removing milking equipment.
Write your answers in boxes 22 to 27 on your answer sheet.
: Table summary: Guidelines for managing workplace hazards. For slips and trips caused by slippery floors, hoses, pipes, overhead obstacles, and unsuitable steps, management involves removing solid spills immediately, ensuring good grip on items, fitting items to walls, using brightly coloured tape for obstructions, covering certain items, and providing good lighting and installations. Lifting and carrying hazards, specifically when transporting containers and calves, are managed by spreading weight evenly between hands and using equipment instead of manual movement. For milking by hand and repetitive equipment handling, the focus is on keeping items accessible to avoid bending or stretching and introducing a system to increase variety.
Read the text on pages 97 and 98 and answer Questions 28 to 40.
Questions 28 to 34
The text on pages 97 and 98 has seven sections, A–G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i-8, in boxes 28 to 34 on your answer sheet.
Table summary: A list of headings including topics such as how chance contributes to conditions being right, concern about the changing environment, the process of photographing animals at night getting easier, and how human developments are affecting wildlife. Other headings cover photographing objects that cannot be seen in detail, a season that may seem unsuitable for photographers, costs no longer being too expensive, and a less ambitious approach.
28 Section A
29 Section B
30 Section C
31 Section D
34 Section G
Night photography in autumn
A November in the northern hemisphere is not the most inspiring of months for the photographer. The days shorten appreciably as winter approaches and the last autumn leaves are blown free by high winds and frequent rain. Nature seems dormant, as many birds have long since flown to warmer climates, fungi break through the earth, and many animal species sleep until spring's warm awakening.
It would seem a good time also to put the camera to bed and forget about photography until the first snowfall. Well, not quite. With the days being shorter and daylight less bright, November is an excellent month to turn your attention to what can be found in the long darkness from dusk to dawn. In the nocturnal hours a vast number of life forms still thrive, and provide a completely different set of subjects to those the daylight hours present.
B As the most noticeable object in the night sky, the moon is an obvious subject when making your initial attempts at night photography. The timing of an evening moonrise is important to know because, not only does it vary according to the time of year, but the moon always appears largest at this point, when it is closest to the horizon. To capture the moon at its brilliant best, you need a bit of luck too: a time when its brightest phase – a full moon – coincides with the ideal weather forecast of a cloudless night sky.
The moon is not a direct light source such as the sun or the stars; instead it is reflecting the light of the sun hitting its surface. On such a night, a full moon will reflect only about ten percent of the sunlight, but that is still enough to illuminate buildings, trees, bridges and other landscape features.
C With today's cameras, far greater detail can be rendered. Whole constellations consisting of thousands of points of starlight filling the frame and even galaxies such as our own Milky Way can be captured. This is a type of night photography for which few of us had suitable equipment a decade ago, but now it has become accessible to all photographers, thanks to the much improved, affordable technology.
However, photographers choosing to shoot the moon may be less concerned by this, as they tend to prefer to use telephoto lenses to magnify the size of the moon, particularly when it is low in the sky and can be shown in relation to a landmark or recognisable structure within the frame.
D Of course, the nocturnal world offers other subjects closer to the ground, some that are even familiar to us by day. As cities and towns spread further into our green spaces, some wild animals move further afield to escape our intrusions, while others adapt to their new urbanised surroundings.
In European cities, sightings of foxes at night are increasingly common, as they thrive thanks to the cover of darkness and a ready supply of residents' waste bins, which they use as feeding stations. Deer and wild boar are larger mammals that have also adapted to the urban fringes in recent years, emerging from the cover of parks and nearby forests to forage in residential gardens by night.
E Such is the proliferation of urban wildlife that some photographers now specialise in documenting the nocturnal animals that have developed a taste for city nightlife. The improvement in camera technology that has made night sky images more accessible has also extended the creative repertoire of the wildlife photographer. It is now possible to photograph some wild species at night, or soon after dusk, without having to always resort to the use of specialist equipment.
More exciting still is how the techniques of astro-photography and the wildlife camera-trap have combined in recent years, to produce images of nocturnal animals against a background of a star-studded night sky. This marriage of two photographic genres has created an innovative style of night photography.
If that all sounds a bit too complex and time-consuming, with too many variables to spoil the hoped-for result, then consider using the fading light of the night sky in the brief time after dusk in a more opportunistic manner. Dusk is the part of the nocturnal phase when the light of the sun is still visible, though the sun itself has disappeared completely. During the earliest phase of dusk there is enough ambient light remaining to enable features in our surroundings to be seen without the aid of artificial light sources such as floodlights or street lamps.
G While many of us shoot sunsets, the period of dusk also provides an opportunity to use the ambient light low in the sky as a backdrop to photographing foreground subjects in varying stages of illumination, or even as shadowy outlines against the fading sky. The variety of possible subjects includes ships at sea, flocks of low-flying birds, trees, windmills, skyscrapers and high bridges. These are all well known by day, but against a night sky at dusk they lack colour, so any compositional strength is determined by the graphic appeal of their distinct and recognisable shapes.
Questions 35 to 40
Complete the sentences below.
Choose one word only from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 35 to 40 on your answer sheet.
35 November is a time when _ _ grow.
36 The apparent size of the moon depends on its position in relation to the .....
37 Sunlight is reflected by the _ _ of the moon.
38 When the night sky is clear, many objects in the for example, buildings, are visible.
39 With modern cameras, it is possible to photograph not only constellations but also _ _.
40 Deer and wild boar may search for food in _ _ in towns.
Writing Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You recently attended a training course for your work. Your employer has asked you for your feedback on the training course.
Write a letter to your employer. In your letter
- remind your employer what the course was about
• explain why the course was useful to you in your work
- suggest why the course may not be suitable for some of your other colleagues
Write at least 150 words.
Dear ....., You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:
Some people dislike changes in their society and in their own lives, and want things to stay the same.
Why do some people want things to stay the same?
Why should change be regarded as something positive?
Example
Sleep
• How many hours do you usually sleep at night?
Do you sometimes sleep during the day? [Why/Why not?]
• What do you do if you can't get to sleep at night? [Why?]
Do you ever remember the dreams you've had while you were asleep?
Part 2
Table summary: A speaking prompt asking for a description of meeting a person who became a good friend. The response should cover who the person was, when and where they met, initial impressions of the person, and an explanation of why the friendship developed.
Part 3
Discussion topics:
Friends at school
Example questions:
How important is it for children to have lots of friends at school?
Do you think it is wrong for parents to influence which friends their children have?
Why do you think children often choose different friends as they get older?
You will have to talk about the topic for one to two minutes. You have one minute to think about what you are going to say. You can make some notes to help you if you wish.
Making new friends
Example questions:
If a person is moving to a new town, what is a good way for them to make friends?
Can you think of any disadvantages of making new friends online?
Would you say it is harder for people to make new friends as they get older?
Table summary: A transport survey interview with Sadie Jones, born in 1991, who lives in Harborne with the postcode DW30 7YZ. On April 24th, she traveled by bus from the stop on Claxby Street primarily to visit the dentist. Sadie prefers the bus over driving because parking is expensive and difficult, noting that the bus takes about 30 minutes. Regarding the service, she mentioned that the bus was 10 minutes late this morning and that there are too few buses available in the evening.
Part 2
If you enjoy working with children, we have three vacancies for what are called 'playmates'. These volunteers help children learn about staying healthy through a range of out-of-school activities. You don't need to have children yourself, but it's good if you know something about nutrition and can give clear instructions.
If that doesn't appeal to you, maybe you would be interested in helping out at our story club Q.19 for disabled children, especially if you have done some acting. We put on three performances a year based on books they have read and we're always looking for support with the theatrical side of this.
The last area I'll mention today is first aid. Volunteers who join this group can end up teaching others in vulnerable groups who may be at risk of injury. Initially, though, your priority will be to take in a lot of information and not forget any important steps or details.
Right, so does anyone have any questions ...
Part 3
Table summary: A conversation between Hugo and Chantal regarding a talk they attended. Chantal mentions she had to move seats because a tall man sat in front of her, marked as Q21. Hugo notes the talk revealed a wide range of unexpected career options, such as fashion journalism, marked as Q22. Chantal describes the speaker's tone as a bit harsh, marked as Q23. Hugo reflects that while they had many career talks in secondary school, they were not inspiring and lacked experts like today's speaker, marked as Q24. Finally, Chantal states her intention to keep an open mind until the end of the course, marked as Q25.
Shantal: Well, I think we'll just have to differ on that issue!
Hugo: One thing's for certain, though. From what she said, we'll be unpaid assistants in the industry for quite a long time.
Shantal: Mmm.
Hugo: I'm prepared for that, aren't you?
Shantal: Actually, I'm not going to accept that view.
Hugo: Really? But she knows it's the case – and everyone else says the same.
Shantal: That doesn't mean it has to be true for me.
Hugo: ok. Well – I hope you're right!
Table summary: A conversation between Chantal and Hugo about a speaker's career path. The speaker's first job was as a personal dresser for a musician, a role she obtained without applying and pursued for experience rather than money. Despite the musician's criticism that she focused too much on her own appearance, the speaker eventually agreed with this assessment. After losing the job because she failed to hide her negative feelings toward her employer, she transitioned into retail. Chantal and Hugo discuss the value of retail experience for designers, noting it provides insights into average shopper sizes, gaps in the market for specific items, and the quality of garments based on customer returns.
Hugo: Yeah.
Part 4
For my presentation today I want to tell you about how groups of elephants have been moved and settled in new reserves. This is known as translocation and has been carried out in Malawi in Africa in recent years. The reason this is being done is because of overpopulation of elephants in some areas.
Overpopulation is a good problem to have and not one we tend to hear about very often. In Malawi's Majete National Park the elephant population had been wiped out by poachers, who killed the elephants for their ivory. But in 2003, the park was restocked and effective law enforcement was introduced.
Since then, not a single elephant has been poached. In this safe environment, the elephant population boomed. Breeding went so well that there were more elephants than the park could support.
This led to a number of problems. Firstly, there was more competition for food, which meant that some elephants were suffering from hunger. As there was a limit to the amount of food in the national park, some elephants began looking further afield. Elephants were routinely knocking down fences around the park, which then had to be repaired at a significant cost.
To solve this problem, the decision was made to move dozens of elephants from Majete National Park to Nkhotakota Wildlife Park, where there were no elephants. But, obviously, attempting to move significant numbers of elephants to a new home 300 kilometres away is quite a challenge.
Table summary: The elephant translocation process to Nkhotakota, which is described as a huge success. Elephants were moved in family groups of eight to twenty, using helicopters for targeting and darts for immobilization. Critical care during sedation included placing elephants on their sides to prevent lung collapse and monitoring for a minimum of six breaths per minute. The project resulted in more than two dozen new births in an area exceeding 1,800 square kilometres. Beyond conservation, the initiative improved community living standards, reduced poaching as former poachers found new income, and boosted tourism, which now contributes five times more to GDP than the illegal wildlife trade.
Table summary: A dialogue between a woman and a man regarding job vacancies at Milo's Restaurants. The woman highlights several employee benefits, including training for all staff, including temporary workers, discounts at their restaurants, and company-paid taxis home for those finishing shifts after midnight. Regarding requirements, the company seeks team players who can provide a high level of service, have an eye for detail, and possess a certificate in English to prove good communication skills. The conversation concludes with a specific vacancy for a breakfast supervisor at a location on Wivenhoe Street, where responsibilities include checking portions and ensuring cleaning procedures for equipment are followed.
: Table summary: A conversation between a man and a woman discussing two job opportunities. The first role offers a starting salary of 9.75 pounds per hour, increasing to 11.25 pounds after three months, with a schedule from 5.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m. The second role at the City Road branch is for a junior chef with an annual salary of 23,000 pounds, involving stock management and delivery coordination, with a schedule that includes evening and weekend work but is closed on Mondays.
Part 2
Hello everyone. It's good to see that so many members of the public have shown up for our presentation on the new housing development planned on the outskirts of Nunston. I'm Mark Reynolds and I'm Communications Manager at the development.
I'll start by giving you a brief overview of our plans for the development. So one thing I'm sure you'll want to know is why we've selected this particular site for a housing development. At present it's being used for farming, like much of the land around Nunston. But because of the new industrial centre in Nunston, there's a lot of demand for housing for employees in the region, as many employees are having to commute long distances at present. Of course, there's also the fact that we have an international airport just 20 minutes' drive away, but although that's certainly convenient, it wasn't one of our major criteria for choosing the site.
We were more interested in the fact that there's an excellent hospital just 15 kilometres away and a large secondary school even closer than that. One drawback to the site is that it's on quite a steep slope, but we've taken account of that in our planning so it shouldn't be a major problem.
We've had a lot of positive feedback about the plans. People like the wide variety of accommodation types and prices, and the fact that it's only a short drive to get out into the countryside from the development. We were particularly pleased that so many people liked ok, so now does anyone ...
Part 3
Adam: So, Michelle, shall we make a start on our presentation? We haven't got that much time left.
Michelle: No, Adam. But at least we've done all the background reading. I found it really interesting – I'd never even heard of the Laki eruption before this.
Adam: Me neither. I suppose 1783 is a long time ago.
Michelle: But it was a huge eruption and it had such devastating consequences.
Adam: I know. It was great there were so many primary sources to look at. It really gives you a sense of how catastrophic the volcano was. People were really trying to make sense of the science for the first time.
Michelle: That's right. But what I found more significant was how it impacted directly and indirectly on political events, as well as having massive social and economic consequences.
Adam: I know. That should be the main focus of our presentation.
Michelle: The observations made by people at the time were interesting, weren't they? I mean, they all gave a pretty consistent account of what happened, even if they didn't always use the same terminology.
Adam: Yeah. I was surprised there were so many weather stations established by that time – so, you know, you can see how the weather changed, often by the hour.
Michelle: Right. Writers at the time talked about the Laki haze to describe the volcanic fog that spread across Europe. They all realised that this wasn't the sort of fog they were used to – and of course this was in pre-industrial times – so they hadn't experienced sulphur-smelling fog before.
Adam: No, that's true.
Michelle: Reports from the period blamed the haze for an increase in headaches, respiratory issues and asthma attacks. And they all describe how it covered the sun and made it look a strange red colour.
Adam: Must have been very weird.
Michelle: It's interesting that Benjamin Franklin wrote about the haze. Did you read that? He was the American ambassador in Paris at the time.
Adam: Yeah. At first no one realised that the haze was caused by the volcanic eruption in Iceland.
Michelle: It was Benjamin Franklin who realised that before anyone else.
Adam: He's often credited with that, apparently. But a French naturalist beat him to it – I can't remember his name. I'd have to look it up. Then other naturalists had the same idea – all independently of each other.
Michelle: Oh right. We should talk about the immediate impact of the eruption, which was obviously enormous – especially in Iceland, where so many people died.
Adam: Mmm. You'd expect that – and the fact that the volcanic ash drifted so swiftly – but not that the effects would go on for so long. Or that two years after the eruption, strange weather events were being reported as far away as North America and North Africa.
Michelle: No. I found all that hard to believe too. It must have been terrible – and there was nothing anyone could do about it, even if they knew the ash cloud was coming in their direction.
Michelle: We should run through some of the terrible consequences of the eruption experienced in different countries. There's quite a varied range.
Adam: Starting with Iceland, where the impact on farming was devastating.
Michelle: Mmm. One of the most dramatic things there was the effect on livestock as they grazed in the fields. They were poisoned because they ate vegetation that had been contaminated with fluorine as a result of the volcanic fallout.
Adam: That was horrible. In Egypt, the bizarre weather patterns led to a severe drought and as a result the Nile didn't flood, which meant the crops all failed.
Michelle: It's so far from where the eruption happened and yet the famine there led to more people dying than any other country. It was worse than the plague.
Adam: ok. Then in the U.K the mortality rate went up a lot – presumably from respiratory illnesses. According to one report it was about double the usual number and included an unusually high percentage of people under the age of 25.
Michelle: Mmm. I think people will be surprised to hear that the weather in the U.S.A was badly affected too. George Washington even makes a note in his diary that they were snowbound until March in Virginia. That was before he became president.
Adam: Yes, and there was ice floating down the Mississippi, which was unprecedented. Q.30
Michelle: Astonishing, really. Anyway, what do you think ...
Audioscripts
Table summary: A transcript of a phone call between Breda from the Wayside Camera Club and a prospective member named Dan Green. Dan provides his contact information, including the email address dan1068@market.com and his home address at 52 Marrowfield Street in Peacetown. He explains that he heard about the club from a relative and is interested in joining to enter competitions and socialize with other photographers. Dan chooses the full membership at 30 pounds a year over the 20 pound associate membership. The conversation concludes with Dan mentioning that the theme of the first of three photography competitions he entered was Domestic Life.
Table summary: A conversation between Dan and Breda where Dan describes three photography competitions he entered. In the first, a photo of a family dinner was criticized for being too busy in its composition. In the second, a sunset photo was judged as having poor timing, as he took the shot too soon. In the third, titled Animal Magic, his photo of a fox showing movement was criticized for being too dark. Breda concludes by inviting Dan to join their club to help him improve in these areas.
Part 2
Presenter: This evening we're delighted to welcome Dan Beagle, who's just written a book on looking for and finding food in the wild. He's going to tell us everything we need to know about picking wild mushrooms.
Dan: Thank you very much. Well, I need to start by talking about safety. You really need to know what you're doing because some mushrooms are extremely poisonous.
Having said that, once you know what to look for, it's really worth doing for the amazing variety of mushrooms available – which you can't get in the shops. But of course, you have to be very careful and that's why I always say you should never consume mushrooms picked by friends or neighbours – always remember that some poisonous mushrooms look very similar to edible ones and it's easy for people to get confused. The other thing to avoid is mushrooms growing beside busy roads for obvious reasons.
But nothing beats the taste of freshly picked mushrooms – don't forget that the ones in the shops are often several days old and past their best.
There are certain ideas about wild mushrooms that it's important to be aware of. Don't listen to people who tell you that it's only ok to eat mushrooms that are pale or dull – this is completely untrue. Some edible mushrooms are bright red, for example. Personally, I prefer mushrooms cooked but it won't do you any harm to eat them uncooked in salads – it's not necessary to peel them. Another thing you should remember is that you can't tell if a mushroom is safe to eat by its smell – some of the most deadly mushrooms have no smell and taste quite nice, apparently. Finally, just because deer or squirrels eat a particular mushroom doesn't mean that you can.
Of course, mushroom picking is associated with the countryside but if you haven't got a car, your local park can be a great place to start. There are usually a range of habitats where mushrooms grow, such as playing fields and wooded areas. But you need to be there first thing in the morning, as there's likely be a lot of competition – not just from people but wildlife too. The deer often get the best mushrooms in my local park.
If you're a complete beginner, I wouldn't recommend going alone or relying on photos in a book, even the one I've written! There are some really good phone apps for identifying mushrooms, but you can't always rely on getting a good signal in the middle of a wood. If possible, you should go with a group led by an expert – you'll stay safe and learn a lot that way.
Conservation is a really important consideration and you must follow a few basic rules. You should never pick all the mushrooms in one area – collect only enough for your own needs. Be very careful that you don't trample on young mushrooms or other plants. And make sure you don't pick any mushrooms that are endangered and protected by law.
There's been a decline in some varieties of wild mushrooms in this part of the country. Restaurants are becoming more interested in locally sourced food like wild mushrooms, but the biggest problem is that so many new houses have been built in this area in the last ten years. And more water is being taken from rivers and reservoirs because of this, and mushroom habitats have been destroyed.
Anyway, a word of advice on storing mushrooms. Collect them in a brown paper bag and as soon as you get home, put them in the fridge. They'll be fine for a couple of days, but it's best to cook them as soon as possible – after washing them really carefully first, of course.
So everybody knows what a mushroom tastes like, right? Well, you'll be surprised by the huge variety of wild mushrooms there are. Be adventurous! They're great Q.20 in so many dishes - stir fries, risottos, pasta. But just be aware that some people can react badly to certain varieties so it's a good idea not to eat huge quantities to begin with.
ok, so now I'm going to show you ...
Part 3
Young Man: That seminar yesterday on automation and the future of work was really good, wasn't it? Looking at the first industrial revolution in Britain in the 19th century and seeing how people reacted to massive change was a real eye-opener.
Young Woman: Yes. It was interesting to hear how people felt about automation then and what challenges they faced. I didn't know that first started with workers in the textile industry.
Young Man: With those protesting workers called the Luddites destroying their knitting machines because they were so worried about losing their jobs.
: A conversation between a young woman and a young man discussing the impact of technology and industrialization on employment. They contrast the Luddites' fears with the fact that industrialization created more jobs than it destroyed. Regarding the future of work, they express skepticism about increased leisure time and lower unemployment, noting that people are working longer and living longer. They highlight specific job trends, such as the growth of accountants and hairdressers, noting that there are twenty times more accountants now than in the 19th century and one hairdresser for every 287 people compared to one for over 1,500. They observe that administrative work has gained more responsibility and status, while agricultural work has plummeted from roughly 25% of the population in 1871 to less than 0.2% today. Finally, they predict huge growth for care workers due to longer lifespans, but a bleak future for bank clerks due to automation and ATMs.
Part 4
So those are some of the problems that we're facing. Let's consider now some of the solutions that have been suggested. One key issue is the way in which information is dealt with.
We need more information, but it also needs to be accessible at a global level, so we need to establish shared standards that we can all agree on for the way in which this information is presented. We already do this in other areas of science, so although this is a challenge, it's not an impossible task. Then, as all this information's collected, it needs to be put together so it can be used, and that will involve creating a single database on which it can be entered.
As we continue to push forward new developments, congestion of the space environment is only going to increase. To cope with this, we need to develop a system like the one I've described to coordinate the work of the numerous spacecraft operators, but it's also essential that this system is one that establishes trust in the people that use it, both nationally and at a global level.
Part 1
Test 4
Greg: Well, they want someone who can start at a quarter to eight in the morning – could you manage that?
Julie: Yes, my husband would have to get the kids up and off to my mother's – she's going to be looking after them while I'm at work. What time would I finish? One fifteen.
Greg: One fifteen.
Julie: That should work out all right. I can pick the kids up on my way home, and then I'll have the afternoon with them. Oh, one thing ... is there parking available for staff at the centre?
Greg: Yes, there is, and it's also on a bus route.
Julie: Right. Well, I expect I'll have the car but it's good to know that.
ok, so where do I go from here?
Greg: Well, if you're happy for me to do so, I'll forward your C.V and references, and then the best thing would probably be for you to phone them so they can arrange for an interview.
Julie: Great. Well thank you very much.
Greg: You're welcome. Bye now.
Julie: Bye.
Part 2
Good morning everyone, and welcome to the Museum of Farming Life. I understand it's your first visit here, so I'd like to give you some background information about the museum and then explain a little about what you can see during your visit.
So, where we're standing at the moment is the entrance to a large building that was constructed in 1880 as the home of a local businessman, Alfred Palmer, of the Palmer biscuit factory. It was later sold and became a hall of residence for students in 1911, and a museum in 1951. In 2005, a modern extension was built to accommodate the museum's collections.
The museum's owned by the university, and apart from two rooms that are our offices, the university uses the main part of the building. You may see students going into the building for lessons, but it's not open to museum visitors, I'm afraid. It's a shame because the interior architectural features are outstanding, especially the room that used to be the library.
Luckily, we've managed to keep entry to the museum free. This includes access to all the galleries, outdoor areas and the rooms for special exhibitions. We run activities for children and students, such as the museum club, for which there's no charge. We do have a donation box just over there so feel free to give whatever amount you consider appropriate.
We do have a cloakroom, if you'd like to leave your coats and bags somewhere. Unlike other museums, photography is allowed here, so you might like to keep your cameras with you. You might be more comfortable not carrying around heavy rucksacks, though keep your coats and jackets on as it's quite cold in the museum garden today.
I'd like to tell you about the different areas of the museum.
Just inside, and outside the main gallery, we have an area called Four Seasons. Here you can watch a four-minute animation of a woodland scene. It was designed especially for the museum by a group of young people on a film studies course, and it's beautiful. Children absolutely love it, but then, so do adults.
The main gallery's called Town and Country. It includes a photographic collection of prize-winning sheep and shepherds. Leaving Town and Country, you enter Farmhouse Kitchen, which is ... well, self-explanatory. Here we have the oldest collection of equipment for making butter and cheese in the country. And this morning, a specialist cheesemaker will be giving demonstrations of how it's produced. You may even get to try some.
After that, you can go in two directions. To the right is a staircase that takes you up to a landing from where you can look down on the galleries. To the left is a room called A Year on the Farm. There's lots of seating here as sometimes we use the room for school visits, so it's a good place to stop for a rest. If you're feeling competitive, you can take our memory test in which you answer questions about things you've seen in the museum.
The next area's called Wagon Walk. This contains farm carts from nearly every part of the country. It's surprising how much regional variation there was. Beside the carts are display boards with information about each one. The carts are old and fragile, so we ask you to keep your children close to you and ensure they don't climb on the carts. Q.18
From Wagon Walk, you can either make your way back to reception or go out into the garden – or even go back to take another look in the galleries. In the far corner of the garden is Bees are Magic, but we're redeveloping this area so you can't visit that at the moment. You can still buy our honey in the shop, though.
Finally, there's The Pond, which contains all kinds of interesting wildlife. There are baby ducks that are only a few days old, as well as tiny frogs. The Pond isn't deep and there's a fence around it, so it's perfectly safe for children.
Part 3
Tutor: So now I want you to discuss the lesson we've just been watching on the video and think about the ways in which origami can be a useful educational tool. Can you all work with the person sitting next to you ...
Seb: I had no idea that such a simple thing like folding squares of paper to make the shape of something like a bird could be such an amazing tool. It's made me see origami in a whole new light.
Lia: I know. It was interesting to see the educational skills the children were developing by doing origami. On the video you could see them really listening hard to make sure they did all the steps in the right order to make the bird.
Seb: That's right. In this lesson they were working individually but it would also be interesting to see if the children could work out how to make something simple without being given any direction. That would help with building teamwork as well.
Lia: Yes, but much more of a challenge. One thing that really stood out for me was that the children were all having fun while being taught something new.
Seb: Which is a key aim of any lesson with this age group. And although these kids had no problems with folding the paper, with younger children you could do origami to help practise fine motor skills.
Lia: Absolutely. Shall we talk about the individual children we saw on the video? I wrote all their names down and took some notes.
Seb: Yes, I did too.
Lia: ok, good. Let's start with Sid.
Seb: He was interesting because before they started doing the origami, he was being quite disruptive.
Lia: Yes. He really benefited from having to use his hands – it helped him to settle down and start concentrating.
Table summary: A conversation between SEB and LIA discussing a classroom origami activity and its application in their own teaching practice. They evaluate several students: Jack, who tried to work things out for himself; Naomi, who was motivated by a desire to make the best mouse; Anya, who produced a perfect bird with little effort; and Zara, who was initially unsure but had a positive experience. The pair credits the activity's success to the teacher's preparation and use of physical examples. They conclude by planning to use origami in their Year 3 maths teaching practice to reinforce knowledge of geometric shapes and present fractions.
The person I've chosen to talk about is the French writer Victor Hugo – many people have heard of him because his novel, Les Misérables, which he wrote in 1862, is famous around the world. It became a stage musical in the 1980s, and a film version was also released in 2012. So, some of us, I'm sure, have a pretty general idea of the plot, but we know much less about the author. Today, I'm going to provide a little more insight into this talented man and I'm going to talk particularly about the home he had on the island of Guernsey in the British Channel Islands.
But first, his early career ... as I've said, he was a writer, he was at the height of his career in Paris and he was very highly regarded by his colleagues. As far as literature was concerned, he was the leading figure of the Romantic movement. However, as well as being a literary genius, he also gave many speeches about issues like the level of poverty in his society. He felt very strongly about this and about other areas where change was needed, like education. This kind of outspoken criticism was not well liked by the rulers of France and, eventually, the emperor – Napoleon 3 – told Victor Hugo to leave Paris and not return; in other words, he sent him into exile.
So Victor Hugo was forced to reside in other parts of Europe. Guernsey was actually his third place of exile and he landed there in 1855. He produced a lot while on Guernsey – including Les Misérables – and to do this, he had to spend a great deal of time in the home that he had there. This was a property that he bought using the money he'd made in France from the publication of a collection of his poetry. It was the only property he ever owned, and he was very proud of it.
The property Victor Hugo bought on Guernsey was a large, five-storey house in the capital town of St Peter Port and he lived there for 15 years, returning to France in 1870 when Napoleon's Empire collapsed. He decorated and furnished each level, or floor, of the house in unique and wonderful ways, and many people consider the inside of the house to be a 'work of art'. Today it's a museum that attracts 200,000 visitors a year.
He lived in the house with his family ... and portraits of its members still hang in rooms on the ground floor, along with drawings that he did during his travels that he felt were important to him. In other ground-floor rooms, there are huge tapestries that he would have designed and loved. The walls are covered in dark wood panelling that Victor Hugo created himself using wooden furniture that he bought in the market. The items were relatively inexpensive, and he used them to create intricate carvings. They gave an atmosphere on the lower level that was shadowy and rather solemn.
On the next level of the house there are two impressive lounges, where he entertained his guests. One lounge has entirely red furnishings, such as sofas and wall coverings, and the other blue. There's a strong Chinese influence in these areas in things like the wallpaper pattern and the lamps – which he would have made himself by copying original versions.
His library, where he left many of his favourite books, forms the hallway to the third floor and was a comfortable area where he could relax and enjoy his afternoons. And then, at the very top of the house, there's a room called the Lookout - called that because it looks out over the harbour. In contrast to the rather dark lower levels, it's full of light and was like a glass office where he would write until lunchtime - often at his desk.
So, Victor Hugo was a man of many talents, but he was also true to his values. While living in his house on Guernsey, he entertained many other famous writers, but he also invited a large group of local children from the deprived areas of the island to dinner once a week. What's more, he served them their food, which was an extraordinary gesture for the time period.
In 1927, the house was owned by his relatives, and they decided to donate it to the city of Paris. It has since been restored using photographs from the period and, as I mentioned earlier, is now a museum that is open to the public.
Answer key with extra explanations in Resource Bank
Part 1, Questions 1 to 10
1 D.W.30 7.Y.Z
2 24(th) April
3 dentist
4 parking
5 Claxby
6 late
7 evening
8 supermarket
9 pollution
10 storage
Part 2, Questions 11 to 20
14&15 in either Order
Part 3, Questions 21 to 30
27&28 in either Order
29&30 in either Order
A
C
Part 4, Questions 31 to 40
31 fences
32 family
33 helicopters
34 stress
35 sides
36 breathing
37 feet
38 employment
39 weapons
40 tourism
Table summary: Recommendations for IELTS candidates based on their score ranges. Those scoring 0 to 19 are unlikely to get an acceptable score and should spend significant time improving their English first. Those scoring 20 to 28 may get an acceptable score but are encouraged to seek more practice or lessons. Those scoring 29 to 40 are likely to get an acceptable score, though they are reminded that acceptability varies by institution.
Reading Section 1, Questions 1 to 14
1 true
2 false
3 false
4 true
5 false
6 not given
7 true
8 A
9 F
10 B
11 C
12 F
13 E
14 B
Reading Section 2, Questions 15 to 27
15 C.E mark
16 tests
17 engineer
18 control measures
19 (lifting) crew
20 barriers 21 banksman
22 injuries
23 win
24 expectations
25 solution
26 policy
27 recommendation
Reading Section 3, Questions 28 to 40
28 vii
29i
30 vi
31 iii
32 8
33 ii
34 sticks
35 infertile
36 Poland
37 loyalty
38 D
39 C
40 A
Table summary: Recommended actions based on score ranges. Those scoring 0 to 26 are unlikely to get an acceptable score and should spend significant time improving their English. Those scoring 27 to 32 may get an acceptable score but are advised to seek more practice or lessons. Those scoring 33 to 40 are likely to get an acceptable score, though they should keep in mind that acceptance varies by institution.
Part 1, Questions 1 to 10
1 training
2 discount
3 taxi
4 service
5 English
6 Wivenhoe
7 equipment
8 9.75
9 deliveries
10 Sunday
Part 2, Questions 11 to 20
11&12 in either Order
B
E
13&14 in either Order
15 G
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 H
20 A
Part 3, Questions 21 to 30
21 C
22 A
23 B
24 B
25&26 in either Order
A
B
27 D
28 A
29 C
30 F
Part 4, Questions 31 to 40
31 convenient
32 suits
33 tailor
34 profession
35 visible
36 string(s)
37 waist(s)
38 perfume
39 image
40 handbag Answer key with extra explanations in Resource Bank
Reading Section 1, Questions 1 to 14
Table summary: A list of fourteen numbered entries with corresponding values. The first eight entries are single letters, including A, B, C, D, E, and F, with D and A appearing twice. The remaining six entries are boolean or status indicators, consisting of two TRUE, two FALSE, and two NOT GIVEN values.
Reading Section 2, Questions 15 to 27
15 absenteeism
16 soda
17 fruit
18 fridge
19 bikes
20 showers
21 surveys 22 aprons 23 board 24 money 25 appliances 26 Labels 27 storeroom
Reading Section 3, Questions 28 to 40
28 E
29 C
30 A
31 E
32 D
33 A
34 C
35 C
36 fabric
37 instructions
38 geometric
39 newspaper
40 knitwear
Part 1, Questions 1 to 10
1 Marrowfield
2 relative
3 socialise / socialize
4 full
5 Domestic Life
6 clouds
7 timing
8 Animal Magic
9 (animal) movement
10 dark
Part 2, Questions 11 to 20
11&12 in either Order
B
C
13&14 in either Order
19 A
20 A
Part 3, Questions 21 to 30
21&22 in either Order
A
E
23&24 in either Order
25 G
26 E
27 B
28 C
29 F
30 A
Part 4, Questions 31 to 40
31 technical
32 cheap
33 thousands
34 identification
35 tracking
36 military
37 location
38 prediction
39 database
40 trust
Reading Section 1, Questions 1 to 14
1 F
2 B
3 F
4 D
5 E
6 B
7 A
8 true
9 not given
10 true
11 false
12 false
13 true
14 true
Reading Section 2, Questions 15 to 27
15 sharing
16 mileage
17 night
18 replacement
19 cover
20 complaints 21 wires
22 chairs
23 mirrors
24 carpets
25 drawers
26 adjustable
27 holders
Reading Section 3, Questions 28 to 40
28 C
29 F
30 D
31 B
32 F
33 C
34 B
35 D
36 A
37 C
38 (fine) gravel
39 animals
40 (crushed) brick
Part 1, Questions 1 to 10
1 receptionist 2 Medical 3 Chastons 4 appointments 5 database 6 experience 7 confident 8 temporary 9 1.15 10 parking
Part 2, Questions 11 to 20
24 A
25 C
27 F
28 A
29 B
30 C
Part 4, Questions 31 to 40
31 plot 32 poverty 33 Europe 34 poetry 35 drawings 36 furniture 37 lamps 38 harbour / harbor 39 children 40 relatives
: Table summary: English language proficiency recommendations based on score ranges. Those scoring 0 to 17 are unlikely to get an acceptable score and are advised to spend significant time improving their English. Those scoring 18 to 27 may get an acceptable score but are recommended to seek more practice or lessons. Those scoring 28 to 40 are likely to get an acceptable score, though they are reminded that acceptability varies by institution.
Reading Section 1, Questions 1 to 14
Table summary: A list of 14 numbered entries associated with various labels. The first six entries are assigned single letters, including B, C, F, A, and D. Entries 8 through 14 are marked as TRUE, FALSE, or NOT GIVEN.
14 true
Reading Section 2, Questions 15 to 27
15 oxygen
16 yearly
17 beard
18 solvents
19 rack
20 straps 21 sunlight
22 footwear
23 padding
24 handrails
25 trolleys
26 overreach
27 rotation
Reading Section 3, Questions 28 to 40
28 vi
29i
30 vii
31 iv
32 iii
33 8
34 v
35 fungi
36 horizon
37 surface
38 landscape
39 galaxies
40 gardens
: Table summary: Recommendations for IELTS candidates based on score ranges. Those scoring 0 to 24 are unlikely to get an acceptable score and are advised to spend significant time improving their English. Those scoring 25 to 31 may get an acceptable score but are encouraged to seek more practice or lessons. Those scoring 32 to 40 are likely to get an acceptable score, though they are reminded that acceptability varies by institution.
Sample Writing answers
Test 1. Writing Task 1
This model has been prepared by an examiner as an example of a very good answer.
Dear Mia
It's great to hear from you; your project sounds really interesting. I'd be happy to tell you about Tet in Vietnam.
Tet is short for Tết Nguyên Đán and it's our New Year according to the lunar calendar. It's the first day of spring and it's usually in January or February. It's really important to us as it's a chance for the family to come together and we visit the graves of our ancestors. It's probably the biggest festival in Vietnam and it's a public holiday. We say if good things happen on the first day of the new year, the whole year will be full of blessings.
I always loved it as a child because I would get a red envelope with money inside it from the older members of the family. Now I like visiting friends and the extended family on the week of Tet and enjoying the lovely candied fruits that we have on this occasion.
I hope that helps. Do ask if there's anything else you'd like to know.
All the best
Here are comments from another examiner:
This is a full response to the task. The candidate addresses the first two bullet points in the second paragraph, then covers the last bullet in the third, but could add more about how New Year is celebrated. They mention [the biggest festival ... public holiday] but give no details about how it is celebrated.
However, the enthusiastic tone is just right for a letter to a friend, and progression in the response is clear. There are some effective linking expressions [according to | because | Now], although in the second paragraph, most sentences start with [It's], so a wider range would improve the response.
The range of vocabulary includes some less common items and some good collocation [come together | good things happen], but it could be wider. Similarly, there is a mix of grammatical structures, including conditionals [if], but generally, the range is limited with simple structures and short, compound sentences. Overall, this is an appropriate and engaging response. To improve it, the range of cohesive devices and grammatical structures could be widened.
Test 1. Writing Task 2
Job seekers often question whether it is better to work for a large or a small company. I would personally prefer to work for a larger company, but I'd like to consider the advantages and disadvantages of both.
In general, larger companies can support their employees more effectively because they have access to more resources. These could include higher salaries, end-of-year bonuses, and other perks such as an excellent food service and even sports facilities. Large companies may also contribute more to your professional development, offering regular conferences and training courses.
The size of a large company is also an indication of their success, meaning that it can offer greater stability. There is also a better chance for promotion and career development in companies with many departments and a larger management structure. Of course, advancement may not come easily because it is hard to stand out when many employees are wing for the same role.
In small companies, you may feel less like a number and that your efforts actually make a difference. You will also need to wear different hats, which helps you develop a skill set that might not be possible in a larger company. The downside is a higher chance of strained relationships because working in close proximity with the same small group of people every day can be challenging. Small companies can also be unstable. If they lose a large account or consumer tastes change, your position could suddenly become precarious.
Based on the above, I'd say that the kind of company you work for depends on personal preference, but your future career prospects may be better in a large company.
Here are comments from another examiner:
This response covers both aspects of the task, including the pros and cons of each type of workplace, with some useful detail and good supporting ideas. Ideas are logically organised and cohesion is very well managed throughout.
There are a range of linkers [Of course | Based on the above] and other cohesive devices [both | your | their | which], which means it is easy to read. Paragraphing is generally good, with the introduction and conclusion sitting separately. However, the second and third paragraphs would be better combined, as they both address 'large' companies.
Vocabulary is strong and there are some natural and sophisticated examples [vying for | wear different hats | strained relationships]. Grammar is flexible and accurate, with a range of structures including modals [can | may | could] and conditionals [if] as part of complex, multi-clause sentences. Errors are rare.
This is a good example of a high-level response.
Test 2. Writing Task 1
Dear Sir or Madam,
I am excited to be starting work experience at the R.R.N Broadcasting Corporation on 10 June and I would like to thank you very much for this opportunity. I am grateful to have the chance to gain some insight into the industry I wish to work in one day.
As I mentioned in my interview, I am especially interested in community television and would love to build on my skills in sound engineering. Besides this, I am hoping to develop my soft skills in areas such as teamwork, problem solving and effective communication.
I was wondering if it has been decided which team I will be working with and whether I will have a mentor assigned to me. I would like to prepare ahead of time if possible by doing some research. I also wanted to clarify whether I will be at the studio in Newtown or the headquarters in the city centre.
I am looking forward to hearing from you.
kind regards
Here are comments from another examiner:
This is a strong response to the task; it addresses all three bullet points and uses a suitable tone to communicate with the manager of the organisation. The response is presented in the correct letter format, with an appropriate ending, and there is clear progression throughout the letter.
The range of vocabulary is wide and precise [gain some insight into | develop my soft skills | mentor assigned], without errors. The writing contains a wide range of structures, including conditionals [if] and passives [it has been decided], with accurate multi-clause sentences.
This is a good example of a higher-level response.
Test 2. Writing Task 2
Some people say that we form an opinion about a person within thirty seconds of meeting them. A person's clothing, facial expression, and even the way they shake hands can have a profound effect on our judgement. But is this natural human tendency good or bad?
There is something unfair about our inclination to judge people too quickly. Many people have had unfortunate life experiences that can affect their confidence when meeting new people. Shyness may make them appear aloof and cold, but this initially icy persona melts away when we allow them a bit of time to warm up. Others do not have the means to dress in a way that leaves an impression. Inevitably, if we write people off too quickly, we could miss out on potential friendships, business opportunities and even romantic relationships.
There is another side to this that is also worth considering. We are all aware of the effect first impressions can have. There is even a saying: you don't get a second chance to make a first impression.
Awareness of this reality should motivate us to always treat people in a friendly, respectful manner. If we strive to make a good impression on the people we meet, it increases our overall happiness and sense of well-being.
On balance, there is no doubt that judging people too quickly can have negative consequences. But knowing the power of first impressions can keep us on our toes, motivating us to question how we come across to others. Aside from this, the ability to read people quickly could also prevent us from being easily taken in by somebody with ulterior motives.
Here are comments from another examiner:
This response presents both sides of the argument and the ending concludes that forming impressions early can be either positive or negative. The second paragraph presents the downsides of judging too rapidly: the impact of low confidence, being shy or not having smart clothes. It also notes that people could miss out on friendships, opportunities and romance if they judge too harshly.
The third paragraph is not entirely relevant. The question asks about the evaluation people make about the 'kind of person' and whether 'we like them' but this paragraph mainly gives advice on how to behave when meeting new people. It should be more aligned to the question and present the advantages of forming early impressions.
There is a very wide range of vocabulary with some higher-level items [affect their confidence | aloof | icy persona | strive to make | come across]. Overall, the response includes a variety of accurate complex grammatical structures, with many long sentences containing a number of clauses.
Vocabulary and grammatical structures are very strong, accurate and flexible throughout. To improve the response, the third paragraph could present more clearly the advantages of quick decisions about the people we meet.
Test 3. Writing Task 1
Dear Sir or Madam
I am writing to complain about the information on your website and the service I received at Central Station. Yesterday my elderly uncle and I arrived at Central intending to use the tickets we had purchased online to travel to Newcastle at 5.50pm. Unfortunately, we were told that our tickets were for off-peak and we couldn't use them.
When I bought the tickets, it was not clear on the website that they were just for certain times. This needs to be clarified on your website as I can't be the only one who has made this mistake. However, what really upset me was the unhelpful manner of the staff.
When we asked what to do, instead of helping us to pay the difference and catch our train, the attendant waved us in the direction of a ticket machine with a long queue. We missed our train and waited an hour for the next one. Please train your personnel to be more proactive in future.
I hope you find this feedback useful and take it on board.
Yours faithfully
Here are comments from another examiner:
This is a very strong response to the task: all three bullet points are addressed with a good level of detail, and the tone is suitable for a letter of complaint. There is clear progression throughout the letter and a very natural style.
The range of vocabulary is wide and includes many higher-level items [unhelpful manner of | pay the difference | direction of | proactive]. There is only one slip [off-peak / off-peak travel].
Overall, the response includes a variety of complex grammatical structures [intending to use], with numerous long sentences containing a number of clauses, including past perfect and modal forms [had purchased | couldn't use].
This is already a very high-level response. To improve it, the final bullet point could be developed further, perhaps with an example of how the staff could be 'more proactive'.
Test 3. Writing Task 2
It is increasingly common for people to hold down more than one job. Gone are the days when people could rely on one source of income to satisfy all their financial needs. I would like to consider the reasons for this change and outline its advantages and disadvantages.
People take on extra work because making ends meet has become so challenging. In recent years the cost of living has risen exponentially, making it a real challenge to break even at the end of the month. Additionally, advertising companies relentlessly promote the idea that more wealth means more happiness, a concept that many people believe. They may take on freelance jobs or weekend work in the hope of improving their lot in life.
A person with more than one job may experience several benefits. Diversifying your skills and gaining more experience can make you more employable when negotiating the highly competitive job market. Avoiding putting all your eggs in one basket is also a wise move as you have something to fall back on if one source of income stops.
There are also many downsides to this situation. Working for more than one company can quickly leave a person feeling overworked and burnt out. It also leaves limited time for being with family and friends or doing things you enjoy. What's more, when you are spread too thin, you may produce poor-quality work.
Overall, I think it is important to remain balanced. Having an additional source of income can be beneficial if you keep work in its place, but it is not worth damaging your health and relationships for the sake of a slightly larger bank balance.
Here are comments from another examiner:
This is a strong response. The candidate has addressed both questions and provided a range of extended ideas.
The reasons given for having more than one job include the need to earn more to keep up with the [cost of living] and the idea, sold to people by advertising, that we should earn as much as possible [more wealth means more happiness].
The pros and cons of having more than one job are well covered. Advantages include increasing your skills and experience to make you more employable and avoiding putting [all your eggs in one basket] in case you lose one job. Disadvantages include feeling [overworked] or [burnt out], and [limited time] to spend with family and friends and on hobbies, and producing [poor-quality work].
The response is logically organised with well-managed cohesion. There are some very good linkers [Gone are the days when | Additionally | What's more] and accurate reference and substitution.
Vocabulary is accurate and wide ranging [satisfy ... financial needs | take on | risen exponentially | break even | improving their lot] with some sophisticated resource [putting all your eggs in one basket | burnt out | spread too thin]. Similarly, the range of grammatical structures is wide and flexible.
This is a very good example of a higher-level response.
Test 4. Writing Task 1
Dear Ms Karim,
Thank you very much again for sending me on the Workplace Safety course. It was valuable training and I now feel a lot more confident that I know how to prevent accidents in the factory. We covered points such as safe storage, keeping access ways clear and fire safety.
I can report that I have already used the skills I learned; when I noticed some cables that were a trip hazard and also a large bin that was partially blocking the exit, I was able to identify and fix those problems straight away.
I understand that employees who started working with us this year have already received this training as part of their orientation but for those who have been here longer, it would be a good opportunity to refresh and add to their knowledge.
It is a well-run course that is very relevant to our workplace and I am grateful for the opportunity.
Many thanks
Here are comments from another examiner:
This is a good response to the task: it addresses all three bullet points, uses a suitable tone to communicate with an employer and is presented in the correct letter format. There is clear progression throughout the letter, but there could be more evidence to justify why the course might not be suitable for colleagues (the final bullet point). There are some effective cohesive devices [that | those who], but a wider range of linking expressions than [and | but] would improve the final rating.
Vocabulary is used well, and there is some effective collocation [prevent accidents | trip hazard | partially blocking]. Grammatical structures include simple and complex examples [started working with us | have been here longer], but most of the letter is in the past simple and past simple tenses.
To achieve the highest scores, the candidate would need to include a wider range of cohesive devices and grammatical structures. They could improve the response by providing further suggestions on why the course may not be suitable for other colleagues. Overall, it is a good response.
Test 4. Writing Task 2
It is true that nothing in life is permanent except change. Changes in society and our own lives are inevitable. We all get older, friends and family move away, and our employment situation can suddenly change.
Understandably, many people wish everything could stay the same. In this essay, I would like to consider the reasons for this view and explain why it is better to embrace change.
Wanting to feel in control of our lives is perfectly normal. We often feel vulnerable when events in society occur which are beyond our control or when we cannot be sure of the outcome of something. The uncertainty caused by the COVID-19 pandemic is an example of this. Changes in our personal circumstances can also be hard to accept. For example, when a friend or family member moves away, we may experience a deep sense of loss. Ironically, even good changes can bring uncertainty. If we receive a promotion, we may struggle with imposter syndrome and wrestle with a fear of failure.
Despite these perfectly natural feelings, I think it is good to embrace change. Since change is unavoidable, it is much better to accept reality than to become consumed by negative thinking. When we remain positive, we may find that a change actually benefits us in the long run. Adapting to change also helps us develop resilience, a quality that can help us face an obstacle and see an opportunity in it.
As highlighted above, sooner or later, we will all face change. While change is unsettling, it is vital to keep focused on the positive aspects of our circumstances. Doing so can help us unlock new opportunities we didn't know were available to us.
Here are comments from another examiner:
This essay is a high-level response that covers all aspects of the question. In the second paragraph, reasons are presented on why people in society as a whole and individuals might resist change. Then, the third paragraph gives clear reasons to suggest that, overall, this is a positive process. The position is consistent and the conclusion ties both areas together for a strong finish.
Ideas are logically organised. Cohesive devices [Ironically | Despite these | As highlighted above | Doing so can] are used highly effectively and paragraphing is helpful.
Vocabulary is natural and sophisticated [embrace change | deep sense of loss | consumed by negative thinking | develop resilience]. Sentence structure demonstrates full flexibility, with a wide range of complex examples within a range of largely error-free multi-clause sentences.
Little needs to be added to improve the rating other than possibly an example to illustrate why changes should be seen as positive, in the third paragraph. However, this is a very good high-level response.
Sample answer sheets
Image summary: A document layout for an IELTS Reading Answer Sheet, featuring logos for the British Council, idp, and Cambridge Assessment English. It contains blank fields for the candidate's name, candidate number, centre number, test module selection between Academic and General Training, and the test date. The purpose of the document is to collect candidate identification and test details.
Table summary: Reading data and marker signatures. The table lists sequential reading values across multiple columns, with values ranging from 1 to 40. A Marker 2 Signature and Marker 1 Signature are associated with a Reading Total of 61788.
Image summary: An IELTS Writing Answer Sheet for Task 2, featuring a header for candidate details, test module selection, and test date, followed by a series of lined rows for the written response. This is a standardized form used for collecting student answers during an English proficiency exam.
Acknowledgements
The authors and publishers acknowledge the following sources of copyright material and are grateful for the permissions granted. While every effort has been made, it has not always been possible to identify the sources of all the material used, or to trace all copyright holders. If any omissions are brought to our notice, we will be happy to include the appropriate acknowledgements on reprinting and in the next update to the digital edition, as applicable.
Key: L = Listening; R = Reading
Text
L.1: Sue Watt and Travel Africa Magazine for the text adapted from 'How to translocate an elephant' by Sue Watt. Copyright 2022 Travel Africa Magazine. Published by Gecko Publishing Ltd. Reproduced with permission; R.1: Citizens Advice for the text adapted from 'If your clothes have been lost or damaged by a dry cleaner' by Citizens Advice, available at citizensadvice dot org dot uk U.R.L as of 28.11.2022, 13:00 G.M.T. Copyright 2022 Citizens Advice. Reproduced with permission; The Reading Agency for the text adapted from 'Reading groups for everyone-teenvision'. Copyright The Reading Agency 2022. Reproduced with kind permission; Safe Workers owned and operated by Blue Indian Media Ltd for the text adapted from 'Mechanical lifting equipment – shifting heavy loads safely' by Norman Thomson, 06.01.2022. Copyright 2022 Safe Workers. Reproduced with kind permission; Training magazine for the text adapted from 'How to handle customer complaints' by Lorri Freifeld, 18.06.2013. Copyright 2013 Lakewood Media Group L.L.C. Reproduced with kind permission; The Guardian for the text adapted from 'Storks are back in Britain – and they're a beacon of hope for all of us' by Isabella Tree, The Guardian, 08.07.2019. Copyright 2019 Guardian News & Media Limited. Reproduced with permission; R.2: The Independent for the text adapted from '10 best sleeping bags for camping, festivals and trekking adventures' by Tamara Hinson, The Independent, 31.08.2022. Copyright 2022 Independent Digital News and Media Limited. Reproduced with permission; Spread the Word for the text adapted from Life Writing Prize 2019 Rules. Copyright Spread the Word. Reproduced with permission; 6.Q for the text adapted from '57 great ways to encourage better employee health' by Miles Burke. Copyright 2022 6.Q. Reproduced with kind permission; The Telegraph for the text adapted from 'A home-sewing revival: the return of Clothkits' by Clover Stroud, The Telegraph, 10.06.2010. Copyright Telegraph Media Group Limited 2010. Reproduced with permission; R.3: Safety+Health magazine, National Safety Council for the text adapted from 'Recognizing hidden dangers: 25 steps to a safer office' by Lauretta Claussen, 01.06.2011. Copyright 2011 National Safety Council. Reproduced with kind permission; World History Encyclopedia by World History Publishing for the text adapted from 'Roman Roads' by Mark Cartwright, 17.09.2014, available at worldhistory dot org U.R.L. Copyright World History Publishing. Reproduced with permission; R.4: The Independent for the text adapted from '7 best ice cream makers for frozen treats at home this summer' by Katie Gregory, The Independent, 02.08.2022. Copyright 2022 Independent Digital News & Media Ltd. Reproduced with permission; Mullion Cove Hotel for the text adapted on photography course led by Carla Regler. Copyright 2017 Mullion Cove Hotel. Reproduced with kind permission; WorkSafe for the text adapted from 'Respiratory protective equipment – advice for workers', November 2016. Copyright 2016 WorkSafe. Reproduced with kind permission; Syon Geographical for the text adapted from 'Night photography from dusk till dawn' by Michael Black, December 2017. Copyright Syon Geographical. Reproduced with permission.
Audio
Audio production by dsound recording Ltd.
Typesetting
Typeset by Q.B.S Learning.
U.R.L's
The publisher has used its best endeavours to ensure that the U.R.L's for external websites referred to in this book are correct and active at the time of going to press. However, the publisher has no responsibility for the websites and can make no guarantee that a site will remain live or that the content is or will remain appropriate.
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